t1/2 = 6.2 ± 1.8 hours (affected by age,
cirrhosis); Vd = 2.7 L/kg (↓ in HF);
clearance, 20%; Cp = 2–6 mcg/mL,
inhibitor, P-glycoprotein inhibitor
thrombocytopenia, proarrhythmia
Procainamide (Pronestyl) t1/2 = 3 ± 0.6 hours; Vd = 1.9 ±
0.3 L/kg; liver metabolism 40%; renal
clearance (GFR + possible CTS)
60%; active metabolite (NAPA)a
Cp = 4–10 mcg/mL, possible CTS
Hypotension, fever, agranulocytosis,
t1/2 = 6 ± 1 hours; Vd = 0.59 ±
AF, WPW, PSVT, PVCs, VT Anticholinergic (dry mouth, blurred
vision, urinary retention), HF,
Class Ibb (cannot use to treat atrial arrhythmias)
Lidocaine (Xylocaine) t1/2 = 1.8 ± 0.4 hours; Vd = 1.1 ±
0.4 L/kg; liver metabolism, 100%;
PVCs, VT, VF Drowsiness, agitation, muscle
twitching, seizures, paresthesias,
Mexiletine (Mexitil) t1/2 = 10.4 ± 2.8 hours; Vd = 9.5 ±
PVCs, VT, VF Drowsiness, agitation, muscle
twitching, seizures, paresthesias,
Class Ic (cannot be used in patients with structural heart disease)
Flecainide (Tambocor) t1/2 = 12–27 hours; CYP2D6 substrate,
Dizziness, tremor, lightheadedness,
flushing, blurred vision, metallic
Propafenone (Rythmol) t1/2 = 2 hours (extensive metabolizer);
Vd = 2.5–4 L/kg, CYP2D6 substrate/
inhibitor, P-glycoprotein inhibitor
Dizziness, blurred vision, taste
disturbances, nausea, worsening of
Moricizine (Ethmozine) t1/2 = 1.3–3.5 hours; Vd >300 L Severe ventricular
Nausea, dizziness, perioral numbness,
Amiodarone (Cordarone) t1/2 = 40–60 days; Vd = 60–100 L/kg;
erratic absorption; liver metabolism,
100%; oral F = 50%, Cp = 0.5–2.5
inhibitor, P-glycoprotein inhibitor
Blurred vision, corneal microdeposits,
photophobia, skin discoloration,
constipation, pulmonary fibrosis,
ataxia, hypothyroid or hyperthyroid,
Sotalolc (Betapace) t1/2 = 10–20 hours; Vd = 1.2–2.4 L/kg;
Dofetilide (Tikosyn) t1/2 = 7.5–10 hours; Vd = 3 L/kg; renal
AF or atrial flutter conversion
Chest pain, dizziness, headache,
Ibutilide (Corvert) t1/2 = 6 (2–12) hours; Vd = 11 L/kg,
AF or atrial flutter conversion Headache, nausea, proarrhythmia
Dronedarone (Multaq) t1/2 = 13–19 hours; Vd = 20 L/kg,
substrate, CYP 2D6, 3A4 inhibitor,
P-glycoprotein inhibitor, take with
Diarrhea, nausea, dermatitis or rash,
aNAPA is 100% renally eliminated and possesses class III antiarrhythmic activity.
b Phenytoin is classified as a class Ib antiarrhythmic.
c Possesses both class II and III antiarrhythmic activity.
fibrillation; VT, ventricular tachycardia; WPW, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
495Cardiac Arrhythmias Chapter 20
Note undulating baseline with no discernable P waves.
QRS complexes, and ventricular rate of 140 beats/minute.
The most common supraventricular arrhythmias are AF, atrial
Atrial Fibrillation and Atrial Flutter
AF is usually initiated when a depolarization stimulus arising
from an ectopic focus or re-entrant circuit impacts the atria while
the tissue is in the vulnerable period. The vulnerable period in
the atria and ventricles occurs during the first half of the QRS
complex; this period is vulnerable because the net charge is near
to arise and attempt to pace the atria with no single pacemaker
in control, eliminating discernable P waves on the ECG (Figure
20-4) and eliciting a rapid, ineffective writhing of the atrial muscle
with a classic “irregularly irregular” ventricular rate. In contrast,
atrial flutter (Fig. 20-5) is characterized by typical sawtooth atrial
(e.g., 2, 3, or 4 atrial beats for each ventricular beat or 2:1, 3:1,
or 4:1 block). In most cases, the ventricular rate is approximately
150 beats/minute. Episodes of atrial flutter can progress to AF if
termination of AF is termed paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (PAF),
and if enough AF events occur in close proximity to each other,
the duration of subsequent AF events increase in length and the
event degenerates into persistent AF. In persistent AF, the AF
episode will continue until the heart is electrically or chemically
be achieved and sustained. An example of PAF is presented in the
every day, furosemide 40 mg twice daily, metoprolol 50 mg
twice daily and allopurinol 300 mg/day. J.K. does not smoke
normal sinus rhythm, respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute,
and temperature of 98.2◦F. His body mass index (BMI) is
AF is commonly associated with, or a manifestation of, other
diseases or disorders (Table 20-4).1 When treatable underlying
causes are present, they should be corrected because this may
resolve the AF. A risk prediction tool has been developed for
AF.2 With this tool, points are assigned for age, male sex, BMI,
systolic blood pressure, PR-interval duration, and presence of
either hypertension, heart failure, or valvular disease. The total
number of points correlates with risk of developing AF within
10 years. This point system highlights common factors associated
496 Section 2 Cardiac and Vascular Disorders
Causes of Atrial Fibrillation and Flutter
Alcohol Nonrheumatic heart disease
Atrial septal defect Pericarditis
Cardiomyopathy Pulmonary embolism
Cerebrovascular accident Sick sinus syndrome
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
with the development of AF, particularly older age, hypertension,
heart failure, and valvular disease. It has been demonstrated that
AF may be more likely to develop in obesity as well.3 In a small
percentage of patients who do not have underlying heart disease,
AF is called “lone” AF and usually has a more benign course.
The point system described above demonstrates the factors
that contribute to risk of developing AF. Although the application
of the scoring system is beyond the scope of this chapter, J.K. has
risk factors for the development of AF within the next 10 years,
including the presence of treated hypertension, heart failure, his
age, and his sex. Given the information available, his 10-year
risk of developing AF would be greater than 30%.2 Details about
application of the scoring system above can be found in the
Consequences of Atrial Fibrillation
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 2: Two years later, J.K. presents
of shorter duration three times in the last year, but these
were not associated with DOE. On physical examination, he
is found to have rales at both bases. Cardiac examination
no organomegaly is found. His extremities have 1+ pitting
edema. The ECG shows AF (see Fig. 20-4), and the chest
and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%. What clinical
findings demonstrated by J.K. are typically associated with
AF? What are the likely consequences of his AF?
The most common complaint in patients with AF, as with
J.K., is chest palpitations (the sensation of the heart beating
rapidly or unusually in the chest). This is a result of the rapid
ventricular contraction rate, which typically ranges from 100
to 160 beats/minute. The R-R interval (time from the R wave
in one QRS complex to the R wave in the next complex) is
irregularly irregular (random irregularity). During AF, the atrial
for 20% to 30% of the total stroke volume, this, coupled with
Depending on the underlying ventricular function, signs of HF,
such as DOE and peripheral edema, may develop, as experienced
by J.K. Conversely, underlying HF may precipitate AF.
Patients with AF are at risk for thrombotic stroke (see Stroke
Prevention section below).4,5 With the chaotic movement of the
atria, normal blood flow is disrupted, and atrial mural thrombi
(usually in a pouch called the left atrial appendage) may form. The
risk of stroke increases after restoration of normal sinus rhythm,
which allows more efficient cardiac contractility and expulsion
of the thrombus. Patients with nonvalvular AF have a fivefold
increase in the risk of stroke; this risk increases as patients have
an increased number of associated risk factors. Other concurrent
TREATMENT OF ATRIAL FIBRILLATION
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 3: What are the therapeutic goals
and general approaches used to treat AF in patients like
cases, a third therapeutic goal may be conversion to normal sinus
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 4: J.K. is given a 1-mg loading dose
of digoxin, followed by a 0.25-mg every day maintenance
dose. What is the purpose of administering digoxin? What
are the relative advantages and disadvantages of digoxin
compared with other agents to control ventricular rate?
The first treatment goal is to slow the ventricular response rate,
which allows better ventricular filling with blood. Table 20-5
Because of its direct AV node-blocking effects and vagomimetic
properties, digoxin prolongs the effective refractory period of the
AV node and reduces the number of impulses conducted through
the AV node (negative dromotropy).6,7
Owing to several limitations associated with digoxin use, its
role is limited as a rate-controlling agent in AF. Digoxin’s use
is limited by its slow onset of action. After an intravenous (IV)
dose, it will take more than 2 hours for the onset of effect and 6
to 8 hours for the maximal effect, which is markedly slower than
other negative dromotropic agents.8 Digoxin is also less effective
or emotional stress), a common precipitant of PAF.6,7,9,10 The
reserved for control of ventricular response rate in AF in patients
with impaired left ventricular function or HF or for use as an
who require rate control of AF and have a lower blood pressure
may also benefit from rate control with digoxin. It should also
be noted that digoxin serum concentrations may be increased
Normally, P-glycoprotein in the brush border membrane of
497Cardiac Arrhythmias Chapter 20
Agents Used for Controlling Ventricular Rate in Supraventricular Tachycardiasa
Drug Loading Dose Usual Maintenance Dose Comments
Digoxin (Lanoxin) 10–15 mcg/kg LBW up to 1–1.5
mg IV or PO for 24 hours (e.g.,
0.5 mg initially, then 0.25 mg
PO: 0.125–0.5 mg/d; adjust for renal
Maximal response may take several
hours; use with caution in patients
Esmolol (Brevibloc) 0.5 mg/kg IV for 1 minute 50–300 mcg/kg/min continuous
Hypotension common; effects additive
with digoxin and calcium-channel
Propranolol (Inderal) 0.5–1.0 mg IV repeated every
Use with caution in patients with HF or
asthma; additive effects seen with
digoxin and calcium-channel blockers
Metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 mg IV at 1 mg/min PO: 25–100 mg BID Use with caution in patients with HF or
asthma; additive effects seen with
digoxin and calcium-channel blockers
5–10 mg (0.075–0.15 mg/kg) IV for
inadequate after 15–30 minutes,
repeat 10 mg (up to 0.15 mg/kg)
PO: 40–120 mg TID or 120–480 mg
in sustained-release form daily
Hypotension with IV route; AV blocking
effects are additive with digoxin and
β-blockers; may increase digoxin
Diltiazem (Cardizem) 0.25 mg/kg IV for 2 minutes; if
180–360 mg in extended-release
Response to IV therapy occurs in
4–5 minutes; hypotension; effects
additive with digoxin and β-blockers
intestinal enterocytes pumps digoxin into the lumen of the gut
and reduces its bioavailability; P-glycoprotein also resides in renal
tubules and pumps digoxin out of the body (see Chapter 19, Heart
Failure, for further discussion of digoxin and digoxin drug interactions).
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 5: J.K. has diabetes, which increases
the risk for diabetic nephropathy. Would the dosing be
changed if J.K. had renal dysfunction?
would need to be altered. Whereas a loading dose is used to
achieve a therapeutic level and, therefore, needs to overcome the
volume of distribution rather than clearance, digoxin volume of
distribution is reduced in patients with renal dysfunction. The
the urine. (See Chapter 19, Heart Failure, for further discussion of
1.0 ng/mL in the management of patients with heart failure,17
higher target levels may be necessary when using digoxin as a
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 6: What other drugs can be used for
β-Adrenergic blocking agents are another class of negative
dromotropic agents used in AF. Propranolol, metoprolol, and
esmolol are available for IV administration. Each agent rapidly
controls the ventricular rate both at rest and during exercise.
β-Blockers are the first choice in high catecholamine states such
as thyrotoxicosis and postcardiac surgery. However, given their
negative inotropic effects, β-blockers should not be used to
(e.g., bisoprolol, carvedilol, and metoprolol), they need to be
started at low doses and titrated prudently for several weeks to
therapeutic doses.18–20 (See Chapter 19, Heart Failure.) When
trying to achieve rapid rate control, more aggressive dosing may
be needed. β-Blockers should also be avoided in patients with
(except sweating) can be masked.
Nondihydropyridine calcium-channel blockers are also effective
5 minutes) reduction in heart rate.21,22 They work through their
effect on slow calcium channels within the AV node. Although
the duration of action produced by bolus dosing is short, both
agents can be administered either as a continuous drip or orally.
expected. IV calcium pretreatment can be used to attenuate
the blood pressure decrease among patients with hypotension,
near hypotensive blood pressure, or left ventricular dysfunction.
cardiovascular drugs such as digoxin, dofetilide, simvastatin, and
lovastatin.27 Verapamil and diltiazem are good alternatives to
498 Section 2 Cardiac and Vascular Disorders
are recommended. If higher-dose monotherapy with one of these
calcium-channel blocker is recommended.10–12,28–30
J.K. has signs of HF, so digoxin is a reasonable choice, although
short-term IV diltiazem is often used in this type of patient as well.
IV verapamil andβ-blockers may worsen the signs and symptoms
of HF, and the β-blockers may mask signs of hypoglycemia in J.K.
The goal of rate control should be a resting heart rate between
60 and 80 beats/minute and an exercising heart rate between
90 and 115 beats/minute.11 A recent study has explored the use
of a more lenient target resting heart rate (<110 beats/minute)
and reported similar patient outcomes as compared with a more
strict target heart rate (resting heart rate <80 beats/minute).31
This study may suggest that it could be acceptable for a patient’s
heart rate to be greater than 80 beats/minute, if there is difficulty
in achieving this level of heart rate control.32
Rate Control Versus Rhythm Control
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 7: After loading of digoxin, J.K.’s
and his symptoms of heart failure are improving, but he still
complains of mild shortness of breath. The decision is made
to cardiovert J.K. back to normal sinus rhythm. Is J.K. a good
candidate for a rhythm control strategy and if so, why? What
is the likelihood that J.K. will be successfully converted to
The use of a rhythm control strategy has become much less
common during the last several years. This change is because
of the completion of at least six studies comparing the effect of
a rate or rhythm control strategy on patient outcomes.33–38 To
qualify for these trials, patients had to be asymptomatic except for
palpitations on a rate control strategy. The AFFIRM study (Atrial
Fibrillation Follow-up Investigation of Rhythm Management), a
AFFIRM enrolled 4,060 patients with AF and a risk of stroke.33
The primary end point was all-cause mortality. Antiarrhythmic
drugs were chosen at the discretion of the treating physician,
but greater than 60% of the patients received amiodarone or
sotalol as the initial antiarrhythmic agent. Rate control agents
control does not improve outcomes and increases the risk of
The default long-term treatment strategy for most patients
should be a rate control strategy, in which heart rate is controlled
and anticoagulation is provided, if indicated. However, rhythm
control is necessary when patients experience symptoms despite
adequate rate control, when heart rate cannot be adequately
J.K.’s heart rate is not adequately controlled with digoxin. An
oral β-blocker or nondihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker
could also be used to control his heart rate; however, his blood
be noted that a rhythm control strategy is still often chosen by
clinicians (approximately 50% of the time in one study), despite
the existence of national guidelines supporting the use of a rate
Likelihood of successful conversion to and maintenance of
normal sinus rhythm is determined by the duration of the
arrhythmia, underlying disease processes, and left atrial size.40
Duration of AF for more than 1 year significantly reduces the
chances of maintaining a normal sinus rhythm.41 When the atrial
size exceeds 5 cm, there is less than a 10% chance of maintaining
AF is short and the echocardiogram revealed only slight enlargement of his left atrium.
CONVERSION TO NORMAL SINUS RHYTHM
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 8: Warfarin treatment is begun and
for a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) to determine
When the onset of AF is less than 48 hours, the likelihood of
atrial clot formation is low. However, when the duration of AF is
greater than 48 hours, or if duration is unknown, then warfarin
not anticoagulated (5.3%).43 Alternatively, a TEE can be used to
determine whether atrial clots have formed.11,12,44 Atrial clots
form most often in small side pouches on the atria called atrial
appendages.45 Because the frequency of right atrial appendage
thrombosis is half that of left atrial appendage thrombosis in AF
patients, the risk of stroke is enhanced much more than the risk
If no clot is observed on TEE, then there is low risk for stroke
with cardioversion of AF.44 However, if an atrial clot is evident
on TEE, J.K. would need to be adequately anticoagulated for
3 weeks before cardioversion to prevent embolization of the clot
and stroke. If cardioversion is successful, patients should remain
underlying stroke and bleeding risk. This will be discussed further
Chemical Conversion—Ibutilide, Propafenone, Flecainide
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 9: J.K. was found to be free of
atrial clots. Chemical cardioversion with ibutilide is planned
for tomorrow. If J.K. fails to convert with ibutilide, he will
be attempted. Many class I and III antiarrhythmic agents have
499Cardiac Arrhythmias Chapter 20
include IV ibutilide, oral propafenone, oral flecainide, oral and
IV amiodarone, and oral dofetilide. This section will focus on
ibutilide, propafenone, and flecainide.
was the first agent that the US Food and Drug Administration
(FDA) approved for the termination of recent-onset AF and atrial
study of hospital inpatients with either AF or atrial flutter, 50% of
If the duration of AF or atrial flutter before cardioversion was
fewer than 15 days, significantly more patients remained in sinus
rhythm at discharge compared with patients who had AF or atrial
flutter for more than 15 days before cardioversion.48 As is the case
with most class III antiarrhythmic agents, the main adverse effect
is TdP, which occurred in approximately 4% of patients. Aside
from the risk of TdP, therapy is well tolerated.49–52
There is preliminary evidence that magnesium may enhance
the efficacy of ibutilide. In a multicenter cohort study called the
Treatment with Ibutilide and Magnesium Evaluation (TIME),
adjunctive magnesium (2.2 ± 1 g) plus ibutilide was compared
with ibutilide alone. In this study of 323 patients, the successful
chemical conversion rate went from 60.3% with ibutilide alone
to 71.6% (p = 0.04) in the adjunctive magnesium group. The risk
(p = 0.388). Whether adjunctive magnesium would be of benefit
with other class Ia or III antiarrhythmic agents is not known.53
Propafenone is a class IC agent with β-blocking properties.
When given in doses of 450 to 750 mg orally (600 mg was
the most common dose), the initial conversion rate in patients
with AF ranged from 41% to 57%. In contrast to ibutilide, no
patients experienced ventricular arrhythmias (including TdP),
but a risk of hypotension, bradycardia, and QRS prolongation
Oral flecainide is another class IC antiarrhythmic agent. In
one study, 300 mg oral flecainide converted 68% of patients to
sinus rhythm within 3 hours and 91% of patients by 8 hours.
The efficacy in atrial flutter has yet to be established. Sinus node
CASE 20-1, QUESTION 10: J.K. received two doses of IV
ibutilide. After the second dose, he converted to normal
sinus rhythm for only 5 minutes, then returned to AF. J.K.
is scheduled for electrical cardioversion in 6 hours. What is
electrical cardioversion? How efficacious and safe is it?
Direct current (DC) cardioversion quickly and effectively
restores 85% to 90% of patients with AF to normal sinus
rhythm.46 If DC conversion alone is ineffective, it can be repeated
in combination with antiarrhythmic drugs.11,12,59 In one study,
the success rate of electrical cardioversion was significantly higher
in AF patients (duration of AF averaged 119 days) with ibutilide
pretreatment (1 mg) compared with those without pretreatment
by 27% (p = 0.001). TdP occurred in 3% of patients receiving
ibutilide, all of whom had an ejection fraction less than 20%.
Flecainide, propafenone, amiodarone, and sotalol could also be
considered for enhancing DC cardioversion.11,12
DC cardioversion is clearly indicated for patients who are
hemodynamically unstable. A reason one may wish to avoid DC
conversion is because anesthesia (short-acting benzodiazepine,
barbiturate, or propofol) is required for the procedure. Chemical
$138/patient) than first-line DC conversion.48
again reports frequent palpitations. His physician would like
to initiate an antiarrhythmic drug to maintain normal sinus
rhythm. Which agent(s) would be the best option for this
To choose the best antiarrhythmic agent for J.K., the efficacy
and adverse effect profiles for each agent should be reviewed.
sotalol, dofetilide, and dronedarone are approved by the FDA for
maintenance of sinus rhythm. Although not FDA-approved for
AF, propafenone and amiodarone are commonly used as well.
For a multimedia slide set presenting an
overview of the guidelines on AF arrhythmia
management, go to http://thepoint.lww.
The class Ic agents flecainide and propafenone are effective in
suppressing AF.60–64 The efficacy rate may be as high as 61%
to 92% for flecainide.65,66 Flecainide and possibly other class Ic
Propafenone, a class Ic agent with β-blocking properties, is as
efficacious as flecainide and is relatively safe in patients without
ischemic heart disease and an ejection fraction greater than 35%;
flecainide (200–300 mg/day), propafenone (450–900 mg/day) was
not have adequate control of their arrhythmia. Adverse events
were comparable and occurred in 10.3% of patients on flecainide
and 7.7% of patients on propafenone. Of all the adverse events
of propafenone versus flecainide demonstrated similar efficacy,
but this study showed a trend toward better tolerability in the
Class III agents (sotalol, dofetilide, amiodarone, dronedarone)
prolong refractoriness in the atria, ventricles, AV node, and
500 Section 2 Cardiac and Vascular Disorders
accessory pathway tissue and can prevent recurrence of AF. All of
these agents act by blocking potassium channels; however, sotalol
also has additional β-blocking properties. 69,70 Both amiodarone
and dronedarone block sodium channels and calcium channels,
and have antiadrenergic effects in addition to potassium-channel
Sotalol, Amiodarone, Dofetilide, and Dronedarone
The median times to recurrence were 27, 106, 229, and 175 days
with placebo, sotalol 160 mg/day (divided in two doses), sotalol
240 mg/day (divided in two doses), and sotalol 320 mg/day
(divided in two doses), respectively. Sotalol is contraindicated
in patients with a creatinine clearance (CrCl) of less than
40 mL/minute because of the fact that the drug is largely renally
producing at least a 75% reduction in AF recurrence (79% of
patients on propafenone vs. 76% on sotalol) and was similarly
tolerated (4.8% of patients on propafenone had intolerable side
should not be used in patients with systolic heart failure owing
to the negative inotropic effects of the drug. It may be useful as
Amiodarone is more effective at maintaining sinus rhythm
than sotalol74 and propafenone.75 The Canadian Trial of Atrial
Fibrillation (CTAF) compared the ability of low-dose amiodarone
(200 mg/day) versus propafenone (450 to 600 mg/day) and sotalol
(160 to 320 mg/day) to prevent recurrence of AF in 403 patients
with a recent episode of AF (within the preceding 6 months).74
of its unusual pharmacokinetics and potential serious adverse
effects (see Table 20-3 and Case 20-7, Question 2), amiodarone is
only recommended as a first-line choice for patients with HF, for
which it has specific safety data, or for patients with significant
left ventricular hypertrophy.11 Amiodarone could also be used
when other agents such as sotalol, propafenone, or dofetilide
Dofetilide)76 and SAFIRE-D (Symptomatic Atrial Fibrillation
Investigation and Randomized Evaluation of Dofetilide)77 have
60% of those converted were still in sinus rhythm with the 500-
mcg dose. Also, dofetilide appears to exert neutral effects on
mortality rates in HF and post-MI patients.78,79
Dofetilide dose is based on the patient’s CrCl; the doses
are 500, 250, and 125 mcg twice daily with CrCl greater than
60 mL/minute, 40 to 60 mL/minute, and 20 to 39 mL/minute,
respectively. Drug interactions pose a significant problem
with dofetilide. Cimetidine, ketoconazole, prochlorperazine,
megestrol, and trimethoprim (including in combination with
sulfamethoxazole) inhibit active tubular secretion of dofetilide
and can elevate dofetilide plasma concentrations.70,80 Because the
Concomitant administration of dofetilide with verapamil or
hydrochlorothiazide increases the incidence of TdP by an unclear
mechanism and is contraindicated as well.70 Concurrent use of
agents that can prolong the QTc interval is not recommended
with dofetilide.80 Dofetilide also undergoes metabolism by the
protease inhibitors, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, amiodarone,
diltiazem, nefazodone, zafirlukast) should be coadministered
with caution with dofetilide. Other agents that can potentially
increase dofetilide levels (through inhibition of tubular secretion)
include metformin, triamterene, and amiloride. Hence, these
agents should be cautiously coadministered with dofetilide.80
Dofetilide is considered a first-line agent for patients with
Dronedarone is the newest antiarrhythmic drug approved in
to cause thyroid-related or other adverse effects.71 Dronedarone
has been shown to have modest efficacy in maintaining sinus
rhythm when compared with placebo. Rate of recurrence of
AF at 1 year is approximately 40%, and the number of days to
recurrence is nearly doubled with dronedarone.81 The major
clinical trial evaluating dronedarone was the ATHENA study.
The primary end point of ATHENA was a composite of death
or cardiovascular hospitalization, and patients received either
dronedarone 400 mg twice daily or placebo for at least 1 year.82
The primary composite end point was significantly reduced from
39.4% with placebo to 31.9% with dronedarone. This reduction
in the composite was completely attributable to the reduction
in cardiovascular hospitalizations, most of which were related
should be noted that patients with recent decompensated HF or
New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV heart failure were
excluded from this trial. The exclusion of patients with severe
or unstable heart failure was related to negative findings that
led to the early discontinuation of the ANDROMEDA study.83
ANDROMEDA was designed as a safety study, to evaluate the
impact of dronedarone on mortality in patients with HF. Patients
admitted with NYHA class III or IV systolic HF were included in
this study. The study was stopped early because of an approximate
doubling in the risk of death with dronedarone as compared with
placebo. Therefore, dronedarone is contraindicated in a patient
with severe or recently decompensated HF. Dronedarone has
also been compared directly with amiodarone.84 In this study,
dronedarone was less effective than amiodarone, but was less
likely than amiodarone to cause thyroid, neurological, skin,
or ocular adverse effects. Gastrointestinal adverse effects were
Dronedarone should not be used in a patient with severe HF
symptoms or a recent hospitalization for HF, but may be used
with mild, well-controlled HF.12,32,83 It should also be noted
that, at the time of this writing, the FDA has issued a warning
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