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 30. A. The brachial plexus nerve root/trunk is usually positioned between the anterior

and middle scalene muscles. When local anesthetics are placed between these two

muscle bundles, it is commonly referred to as an interscalene block.

31. B. Bilateral supraclavicular blockade can significantly increase the risk of

symptomatic phrenic nerve palsy. Methemoglobinemia can happen in patients with

certain local anesthetics, but usually not from ropivacaine administration. LAST can

occur from administration of toxic doses of any local anesthetic, but is most often an

acute event from systemic administration.

32. C. The witnessed respiratory depression is most likely due to diaphragm palsy

and the urgent need for ventilation assistance until resolution of phrenic nerve

dysfunction. An appropriate option would be to intubate the patient and provide any

necessary sedation and then extubation upon evidence of recovery of diaphragm

function.

33. B. Femoral and proximal sciatic nerve block together can often provide for

excellent perioperative pain control and can facilitate physical therapy with a

reduced incidence of interference with ambulation. These peripheral regional

techniques can be particularly useful in patients with difficulty or contraindications

to neuraxial blockade.

34. C. Shoulder surgery is one of the upper extremity procedures that can often be

associated with nerve injuries secondary to patient pathology, surgical

manipulation(s), surgical trauma, brachial plexus nerve stretching or compression,

etc. If such an injury was due to performance of the peripheral nerve block and/or

catheter placement, it often tends to involve more isolated nerve roots/trunks of the

brachial plexus from the interscalene approach rather than diffuse influences at more

distal levels of the plexus. Surgical complications of the brachial plexus often tend to

be more diffuse and less selective. Nerve-conduction studies and EMG should be

considered rather than merely delineating an etiology of the injury.

35. A. The sciatic nerve supplies all of the motor innervation and the majority of the

sensory innervation to the lower extremities below knee except the medial side of the

lower extremity that is innervated by the saphenous nerve.

36. B. Bupivacaine is best known for its high cardiovascular toxicity, although any of

the local anesthetic medications listed above can result in LAST. One of the reported

advantages of ropivacaine over bupivacaine is its relatively lowered incidence of

cardiovascular toxicity. The other listed local anesthetic medications tend to have

neurological toxicity prior to progressing toward cardiovascular collapse.

37. B. A femoral block for hip surgical procedures have intrinsic limitations as does

not completely cover ALL dermatome distributions of the hip. A properly placed and

functioning lumbar plexus blockade/catheter will cover the femoral, obturator, and

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and often provides for better pain control of the hip

in conjunction with a sciatic/sacral nerve plexus block.

38. B. The femoral nerve provides sensory innervation to the anterior and medial thigh

above the knee, and medial side of the lower extremity below the knee. The femoral

nerve innervates and supplies motor control of the anterior quadriceps muscles above

the knee and no motor innervation below the knee.

39. B. Sciatic nerve blockade provides sensory loss to the posterior thigh by blocking

the posterior cutaneous nerve along with everything below the knee, except for the

medical lower leg, which is innervated by the saphenous nerve.

40. A. The most likely cause is secondary to axillary lymph node dissection–related

brachial plexus injury. The level of paravertebral blocks was at T3–T5; therefore, the

brachial plexus should not be affected (C4–T1) by the paravertebral-injected local

anesthetic.

41. C. Paravertebral blockade provides mostly for somatic-induced pain with little

visceral pain coverage; therefore, hepatectomy patients need additional painmanagement modalities such as opioids.

42. D. Neurologic injuries secondary to positional, compressional, ischemic injury

often creates a more diffuse type of an injury pattern similar to the one described in

the question. If the neurologic injury were due to complications from placement of a

single-shot supraclavicular blockade or local anesthetic used during block placement,

then these types of injuries would tend to have a more isolated pattern. Peripheral

nerve block injuries from a supraclavicular block would be more likely to result in

evidence of an injury pattern isolated to the trunks or divisions of the brachial plexus,

and the patient would typically reveal symptoms above elbow as well. Without any

adjuvant, ropivacaine block will not last as long as 72 hours.

43. A. Axillary block is typically performed at the level of the individual peripheral

nerve branches of the brachial plexus, specifically the radial, median, and ulnar

nerves.

44. B. Supraclavicular approach to blockade of the brachial plexus carries a high risk

of pneumothorax followed by the interscalene approach. This pneumothorax risk has

decreased and is believed to be secondary to the more frequent use of ultrasoundguided regional anesthesia. Now the supraclavicular approach to blockade of the

brachial plexus is commonly performed with ultrasound guidance.

45. B. All of the above adjuvant medications, except ketamine, are commonly used in

peripheral nerve blocks to improve the density and prolong the duration of nerve

blockade efficacy. Ketamine, along with ephedrine, when mixed with local

anesthetics during a peripheral nerve block has been studied in animal models and

was deemed to offer little to no additional benefits or synergistic effects.

46. B. Sartorius muscle twitch could be secondary to stimulation of a small branch

from the femoral nerve that innervates the sartorius muscle or secondary to direct

muscle stimulation. The femoral nerve is usually positioned more lateral and deeper

to this small branch that originates from the femoral nerve which innervates the

sartorius muscle.

47. C. A potential advantage of paravertebral blockade compared to neuraxial

blockade is a reduced incidence of creating an intense sympathectomy resulting in

hemodynamic compromise. However, when bilateral paravertebral blocks are

performed, the potential exists that epidural spread could be significant, resulting in

an observation of a moderate BP decrease.

Pain Management

Thomas Halaszynski

1. At what time frame following the postsurgical period does persistent postsurgical

pain become defined as being “chronic pain”?

A. 1 to 2 weeks

B. 3 to 4 weeks

C. 1 to 2 months

D. 6 to 12 months

2. Both surgical trauma and anesthetic administration techniques can modulate which

of the following human stress responses?

A. Neuroendocrine

B. Metabolic

C. Inflammatory

D. All of the above

3. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are often used as part of

“multimodal” analgesic therapy; some of the potential advantages include all of the

following, except

A. Decreases opioid requirements

B. Can decrease postoperative pain intensity

C. Indirect effect of decreasing opioid-related side effects

D. Can improve wound healing

4. Type(s) of symptomatic pain conditions that best describes “chronic” pain often

includes

A. Neuropathic pain alone

B. Nociceptive pain alone

C. Neuropathic or nociceptive pain

D. Somatic or visceral pain

5. At what levels does the modulation of pain by electrical stimulation result in the

activation of inhibitory fibers?

A. Nociceptor level alone

B. Spinal cord level alone

C. Only within the brain

D. All of the above

6. Activation of which of the following mechanisms and/or pathways best describes

“central sensitization” at the level of the spinal cord?

A. Second-order wide dynamic range neurons

B. Dorsal horn neuron

C. Spinal cord reflexes

D. All of the above

7. A 26-year-old female undergoes a left stellate ganglion block for treatment of

complex regional pain syndrome of the left hand. Twenty minutes after the block is

placed, skin temperature in the left arm rises from 33 to 36.5°C. Venous

engorgement of the left arm and hand, left eye papillary constriction, and drooping of

the eyelid are observed. The pain is not relieved. Which of the following can best

explain the block failure?

A. Pain-carrying fibers originated from right stellate ganglion

B. Pain-carrying fibers originated from middle cervical ganglion

C. Pain-carrying fibers originated from inferior cervical ganglion

D. Pain-carrying fibers originated from second thoracic ganglion

8. Chronic pain indications for insertion of a spinal cord stimulator include all of the

following, except

A. Phantom pain

B. Complex regional pain syndrome

C. Chronic visceral pelvic pain

D. Compartment syndrome pain

9. The term used to best describe the PAIN condition “perception toward ordinary nonnoxious stimulus as being painful” is

A. Hyperalgesia

B. Anesthesia dolorosa

C. Hypalgesia

D. Allodynia

10. Incorrect statement related to the definition of an abnormal sensation is

A. Dysesthesia is an abnormal sensation with or without a stimulus

B. Paresthesia is abnormal sensation without a stimulus

C. Neuralgia is due to abnormality in nerve roots

D. Hyperesthesia is an abnormal sensation of exaggerated response to mild

stimulation

11. Which of the following clinical diagnoses best describes deafferentation pain?

A. Herniated disk

B. Amputation

C. Neuropathic pain

D. Diabetic neuropathy

12. Gasserian ganglion block is most commonly used for neuropathic pain located in

which of the following nerve distributions?

A. Facial nerve

B. Trigeminal nerve

C. Glossopharyngeal nerve

D. Vagal nerve

13. Major excitatory neurotransmitters responsible for pain modulation include all the

following, except

A. Substance P

B. Glutamate

C. Somatostatin

D. Aspartate

14. All the following are inhibitory neurotransmitters in the pain pathway, except

A. Norepinephrine

B. Adenosine

C. Serotonin

D. Calcitonin gene-related peptide

15. Incorrect statement regarding secondary hyperalgesia is

A. It is caused by neurogenic inflammation

B. It is associated with Lewis’ triple response

C. It is increased by injection of local anesthetics

D. It is increased by application of capsaicin

16. Types of pain disorders that are commonly treated using “sympathetic blockade”

include all of the following, except

A. Complex regional pain syndrome

B. Phantom limb pain

C. Postherpetic neuralgia

D. Acute pain due to pelvic exenteration

17. Systemic responses of the human body that can develop secondary to symptoms of

acute pain include all of the following, except

A. Hypertension and tachycardia

B. Increased work of breathing

C. Urinary retention

D. Increased peristalsis

18. A 56-year-old man presented to his primary care physician with a complaint of right

buttock and right leg pain along with numbness and tingling sensations. He was

subsequently diagnosed with a piriformis syndrome (trapped nerve). The nerve(s)

responsible for this diagnosis is/are

A. Femoral and saphenous nerves

B. Ilioinguinal nerve

C. Sciatic nerve

D. Obturator and femoral nerves

19. A 56-year-old patient with a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and

alcohol abuse presents to the operating room for a right-elbow open reduction

internal fixation, secondary to a motor vehicle accident that occurred 24 hours ago.

On postoperative day 1, the patient complains of right fourth and fifth digit numbness

and minor pain. A diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome has been made. The nerve

most likely to be involved is

A. Median nerve

B. Ulnar nerve

C. Radial nerve

D. Musculocutaneous nerve

20. Incorrect statement regarding myofascial pain is

A. Myofascial pain is associated with muscle discomfort (pain, stiffness,

weakness, spasm)

B. Patient may have several trigger points producing pain upon stimulation

C. Systemic diseases such as connective tissue disease may cause myofascial pain

D. Myofascial pain is never associated with autonomic dysfunctions

21. The diagnosis of fibromyalgia includes all of the following, except

A. Minor pain

B. Pain lasts more than 3 months

C. No other pathologies can explain or contribute to the pain

D. Frequent association with psychiatric diagnosis

22. Common causes for lower back pain include all of the following, except

A. Lumbosacral strain

B. Degenerative disk disease

C. Myofascial syndromes

D. Fibromyalgia syndrome

23. A 68-year-old male presents to his primary care physician’s office with a major

complain of back pain radiating into the gluteal region and pain in the distribution of

the plantar surface of the foot on the same side. The patient’s physical examination

reveals decreased plantar flexion of the foot. An MRI will most commonly show a

herniated disk at

A. L2–L3

B. L3–L4

C. L4–L5

D. L5–S1

24. Disk herniation at L4–L5 of the vertebral column often presents with all of the

following clinical symptoms, except

A. Diminished dorsiflexion of the foot

B. Quadriceps femoris muscle weakness

C. Posterior-lateral thigh pain

D. Dorsal foot pain between first and second toes

25. Facet syndrome is characterized by all the following, except

A. Pain relieved by local anesthetic injection of the medial branches of the

posterior rami of spinal nerves

B. Pain relieved by an intra-articular injection of the zygapophyseal joints

C. Pain can be exacerbated by overextension and lateral rotation of back

D. Pain is sympathetically mediated

26. Incorrect statement regarding neuropathic pain is

A. It includes pain associated with stroke, spinal cord injury, and diabetic

neuropathy

B. It is not associated with low back pain or multiple sclerosis

C. Neuropathic pain can be paroxysmal

D. Neuropathic pain can be associated with hyperpathia

27. Regarding the treatment of neuropathic pain, the correct statement is

A. Narcotics is the most effective and “first-line” treatment option

B. It is most optimally treated with multimodal therapies

C. Sympathetic blockade will eliminate all neuropathic pain

D. Spinal cord stimulator is not an effective therapy

28. Pathological features of complex regional pain syndrome include all the following,

except

A. It is sympathetically mediated

B. It is often associated with documented nerve injury

C. It is only associated with major injuries (never from minor procedures)

D. It is not associated with evidence of skin color, hair, and temperature changes

29. Incorrect statement regarding treatment of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS)

is

A. Efficacious treatment with multimodal therapy early in the diagnosis (within 1

month of symptom) is most effective

B. It responds well to sympathetic blockade

C. If not treated properly and in a timely fashion, CRPS can result in functional

disability

D. Patients need to refrain from physical therapy until the pain syndrome is

resolved

30. Possible complications to disclose when obtaining an anesthesia consent from a

patient prior to performance of a celiac plexus block include all of the following,

except

A. Postural hypotension and lightheadedness

B. Constipation and urinary retention

C. Vena cava and aortic vascular injury

D. Retroperitoneal hemorrhage

CHAPTER 9 ANSWERS

1. C. Persistent postsurgical pain is defined as chronic pain that continues beyond the

usual recovery period of 1 to 2 months following surgery (well past the normal

convalescence period expected for a particular/specific surgical procedure). Chronic

pain is defined as pain that has lasted longer than 3 to 6 months, though some other

investigators have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months. The

incidence of persistent postsurgical pain can often exceed an incidence of 30% after

certain high-risk/surgically invasive procedures such as amputations, thoracotomy,

mastectomy, and inguinal hernia repair. Acute pain will typically last less than 30

days, chronic pain to more than 6 months duration, and subacute pain lasts from 1 to

6 months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain involving no arbitrarily

fixed durations is “pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing.”

2. D. Many perioperative factors can produce significant influence toward amplifying

or decreasing the surgical stress response(s) such as neuroendocrine, metabolic, and

inflammatory changes. These factors can be further modified by patient-specific

contributions such as anxiety/depression, surgical history, surgical technique (open

vs. laparoscopy), and anesthetic techniques (general vs. regional).

3. D. NSAIDs have not only many of the above-identified advantages, but also

several potential side effects that the practitioner must remain cognizant of such as

risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, renal injury, and the potential to impair wound

healing.

4. C. Chronic pain is most often defined as neuropathic and/or nociceptive in nature.

Chronic pain may be divided into nociceptive pain—caused by activation of

nociceptors—and neuropathic pain—caused by damage to or malfunction of the

nervous system. Neuropathic pain is divided into peripheral (within the peripheral

nervous system) and central (originating from the brain/spinal cord). Peripheral

neuropathic pain is often described as burning, tingling, electrical, stabbing, and/or

pins and needles sensation(s). Nociceptive pain is divided into superficial or deep,

and deep pain into deep somatic and visceral pain. Superficial pain is initiated by

activation of nociceptors in the skin or superficial tissues. Deep somatic pain is

initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels,

and muscles, and is described as dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Visceral pain

originates in the internal organ system(s) of the body. Visceral pain may be welllocalized, but often is difficult to locate, and several visceral regions can produce

“referred” pain when damaged or inflamed, where the sensation is located in an area

distant from the site of pathology or injury.

5. D. Modulation of pain can happen centrally or peripherally. It can occur at the

nociceptor level peripherally or centrally either in the spinal cord or in supraspinal

structures. These modulation effects can be either inhibitive or facilitative. In the

brain and the spinal cord, much of the information from the nociceptive afferent

fibers results from excitatory discharges of multireceptive neurons. Pain information

in the central nervous system is controlled by ascending and descending inhibitory

pathways (using endogenous opioids or other endogenous substances). In addition, a

powerful inhibition of pain-related information occurs in the spinal cord. These

inhibitory systems can be activated by brain stimulation and peripheral nerve

stimulation. However, pain is a complex perception that is influenced also by prior

experience and by the context within which the noxious stimulus occurs. This

sensation is also influenced by emotional state.

6. D. Central sensitization is an enhancement in the function of neurons and circuits in

nociceptive pathways, caused by increases in membrane excitability and synaptic

efficacy as well as reduced inhibition and is a manifestation of the plasticity of the

somatosensory nervous system in response to activity, inflammation, and neural

injury. Central sensitization is responsible for hyperalgesia and there are three

mechanisms that have been identified at the level of spinal cord: (1) windup of

second-order wide dynamic range neurons, (2) dorsal horn neuron receptor field

expansion, and (3) hyperexcitability of flexion reflexes.

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