B. Opioid hyperalgesia

C. Resistance to the hypnotic effects of thiopental

D. Resistance to the analgesic effects of opiates

20. A woman with long-standing alcoholic cirrhosis (Child-Turcotte-Pugh B) presents to

the emergency room for chronic shortness of breath and abdominal pain. A review of

her lab findings reveal a hematocrit concentration of 36% (hemoglobin 12.4 g/dL)

with an arterial blood gas revealing a PaO2 of 65 mm Hg breathing a FIO2 of 0.5 via

face mask. Her vitals are a blood pressure of 135/60 mm Hg and a heart rate of 88

bpm. The most likely cause of her hypoxemia is

A. Intrahepatic arteriovenous shunts

B. Intrapulmonary arteriovenous shunts

C. Anemia

D. Decreased cardiac output

21. Which of the following cardiovascular abnormalities is least likely to be present in a

patient with end-stage alcoholic cirrhosis

A. Resting tachycardia

B. Widened pulse pressure

C. Increased peripheral vascular resistance

D. Increased cardiac output

Questions 22 to 23

A 120-kg diabetic male is scheduled for emergent pinning of his mandible after a motor

vehicle accident. His wife reports that he snores loudly every night with occurrences of

breathing cessation. Medical history is also significant for hypertension controlled with a

diuretic. On physical examination, he has a large tongue and a wide neck with inadequate

mouth opening revealing a Mallampati grade 4 view. His BMI is 38 kg/m2 with a neck

circumference of 44 cm.

22. Arterial blood gas (ABG) finding that would confirm Pickwickian syndrome is

A. pH = 7.44, PaCO2 = 44, PaO2 = 90, HCO3 = 24

B. pH = 7.35, PaCO2 = 44, PaO2 = 65, HCO3 = 26

C. pH = 7.42, PaCO2 = 36, PaO2 = 80, HCO3 = 22

D. pH = 7.37, PaCO2 = 55, PaO2 = 67, HCO3 = 28

23. The dose of thiopental required for rapid-sequence induction would be increased, as

compared with what would be required at his ideal body weight, because of changes

in

A. Decreased basal metabolic rate

B. Increased blood volume

C. Increased muscle mass

D. Decreased liver metabolism

24. A patient with chronic liver disease is scheduled for a laparoscopic abdominal

operation. The risk of mortality during surgery for this patient is assessed using

A. Mayo end-stage liver disease

B. Child-Turcotte-Pugh score

C. Ranson criteria

D. Alvarado score

25. The variable not used to calculate an MELD (model for end-stage liver disease)

score to prioritize patients for liver transplantation is

A. Creatinine

B. INR (international normalized ratio)

C. Bilirubin

D. Albumin

Questions 26 to 28

A 30-year-old male patient without preoperative renal dysfunction is undergoing a primary

orthotopic liver transplant (OLT) for failure due to inherited α1

-antitrypsin deficiency.

26. During cross-clamping of the suprahepatic inferior vena cava (IVC), the most

accurate effect created by use of venovenous bypass (VVB) is that it

A. Induces urinary retention

B. Prevents metabolic acidosis

C. Requires heparinization

D. Supports cardiac output

27. Immediately before unclamping and reperfusion of the transplanted liver, sodium

bicarbonate and calcium chloride are administered intravenously to counteract

A. Coagulopathy

B. Decreased cardiac output

C. Increased systemic vascular resistance

D. Hypertension

28. At the end of the case as the drapes are taken down, diffuse microvascular bleeding

is noted in this patient who required 15 U of blood during his intraoperative course.

Platelet count is 40,000/mm3

, prothrombin time is 18 seconds, activated partial

thromboplastin time (PTT) is 54 seconds, D-dimer is 2,000 ng/mL, and serum

fibrinogen concentration is 40 mg/dL. The most likely cause of bleeding is

A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

B. Abnormal platelet function

C. Depressed levels of factor VIII

D. Citrate toxicity

29. A patient presents for preoperative evaluation for upcoming surgery. He has a

history of liver transplantation 2 years ago, otherwise feeling well. Which of the

following is most likely to be present during preoperative evaluation?

A. Elevated serum creatinine concentration

B. Hypoalbuminemia

C. Prolonged partial thromboplastin time

D. Hypocalcemia

30. Following a gastric bypass procedure, a 130-kg woman is extubated and breathing

spontaneously in the recovery room (PACU). She is breathing at a rate of 24

breaths/min on 10 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula, and is complaining of

continued subjective dyspnea. Arterial blood gas analysis shows PaO2 = 95 mm Hg,

PaCO2 = 44 mm Hg, and pH = 7.37. The parameter most closely related to her

increased alveolar–arterial oxygen-tension gradient is

A. Decreased minute volume

B. Decreased functional residual volume

C. Decreased expiratory reserve volume

D. Decreased respiratory drive

31. During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the risk of failure to visualize contrast

material entering the duodenum during intraoperative cholangiogram is highest with

the administration of

A. Buprenorphine

B. Nalbuphine

C. Morphine

D. Naloxone

32. Drugs that can decrease or reduce opioid-induced biliary spasm include all of the

following, except

A. Diltiazem

B. Atropine

C. Metoclopramide

D. Glucagon

33. Each of the following is associated with delayed gastric emptying, except

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Celiac plexus block

C. Vagotomy

D. μ-Receptor agonism

Questions 34 to 39

A 33-year-old otherwise-healthy female suffering from moderately severe abdominal pain

of unclear etiology is set to undergo an exploratory laparoscopy. The abdominal cavity is

insufflated using carbon dioxide (CO2

).

34. All of the following are correct statements regarding pathophysiologic changes

associated with creation of the pneumoperitoneum, except

A. Increased risk of reflux and aspiration

B. Decreased venous return

C. Decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

D. Increased intrathoracic pressures

35. Inherent risks of abdominal laparoscopy include

A. Renal failure

B. Bronchospasm

C. Gas emboli

D. Hypothermia

36. The patient is placed in a steep Trendelenburg position. Her oxygen saturation

begins to gradually decline over the course of several minutes while being ventilated

with 100% oxygen (FIO2 = 1.0). The initial step in the management of her hypoxemia

is

A. Add positive end–expiratory pressure (PEEP)

B. Intravenous bolus of 500 mL saline

C. Reposition the patient

D. Switch to pressure support ventilation

37. The exploratory surgery progresses slowly. Over the next 3 hours, her EtCO2 begins

to gradually rise, requiring increasing minute ventilation. All of the following

contribute to the degree of systemic CO2 absorption, except

A. Solubility of the gas

B. Intra-abdominal pressures (IAP)

C. Duration of surgery

D. Blood pressure

38. Each of the following is hemodynamic change associated with hypercarbia, except

A. Arrhythmias

B. Bradycardia

C. High cardiac output

D. Low systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

39. The surgery continues on with a request to increase the pneumoperitoneum to 30 mmHg to improve the surgical view. All of the following are appropriate in the

differential diagnosis for hypotension during laparoscopy, except

A. Compression of the inferior vena cava

B. Increase cardiac afterload

C. Too small blood pressure cuff

D. CO2 embolism

40. This physical exam finding is inappropriately paired with the possible nerve injury

resulting from ill positioning during surgery:

A. Inability to evert the foot common peroneal nerve

B. Inability to stand on toes sciatic nerve

C. Difficulty climbing stairs femoral nerve injury

D. Foot drop saphenous nerve injury

41. A 50-year-old male patient is to undergo an open nephrectomy for renal carcinoma.

The patient requests an epidural for perioperative pain management, as he is strongly

intolerant to μ-agonist opiate therapy with nausea and vomiting. After a T2 sensory

level is obtained, the patient is induced with propofol 200 mg and rocuronium 70 mg,

followed by tracheal intubation. The expected response to intubation in this patient

includes

A. Hypertension

B. Tachycardia

C. Tachypnea

D. Mydriasis

42. A 24-year-old female status postrecent living-related renal transplant requires

chronic immunosuppression with cyclosporine and steroids to combat organ

rejection. She now presents for right-knee arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament

repair and mentions significant history of postoperative nausea and vomiting

(PONV). The most appropriate next step in planning her anesthetic management is

A. Proceed with total IV anesthesia (TIVA), avoiding inhaled anesthetics

B. Avoid regional anesthesia

C. Liberally infuse intravenous fluids

D. Use metoclopramide to decrease gastric secretions

Questions 43 to 45

A 70-year-old 70-kg male with benign prostatic hypertrophy and difficulty with urination

presents for a transurethral resection of his 65-g prostate (TURP). His other pertinent

history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well controlled. He has a remote

history of a lumbar spinal fusion with no current lumbar symptomatology. The patient

requests a general anesthetic for the procedure and refuses spinal anesthesia.

43. Assuming the use of a hypotonic irrigant, these factors will contribute to the amount

of fluid absorbed by the patient, except

A. Venous pressure

B. Hydrostatic pressure of the irrigation infusion

C. Lithotomy position

D. Size of prostate

44. In the recovery room, he complains of bothersome localized suprapubic pain and is

requesting pain medicine. He denies pain or discomfort anywhere else. His review of

systems is negative for fevers or chills. The relatively common complication of this

procedure that should be ruled out at this time is

A. Hyponatremia

B. Glycine toxicity

C. Extraperitoneal perforation

D. Transient bacteremia

45. The patient is administered hydromorphone intravenously, and 20 minutes later is

feeling well with minimal pain complaints. At this time, his postoperative

laboratories have returned, revealing a serum sodium value of 130 mEq/L. The most

appropriate next step in the management of his hyponatremia is

A. Hypertonic saline infusion

B. Fluid restriction

C. Demeclocycline administration

D. Insulin and glucose administration

46. Effects of furosemide administration in the perioperative period include

A. Hypernatremia

B. Decreased risk for acute tubular necrosis

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Hyperkalemia

Questions 47 to 51

A 38-year-old woman is set to undergo extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy to

disintegrate a painful stone trapped in her upper ureter. The patient is requesting an

epidural anesthetic and is choosing to be otherwise awake and cooperative with her

positioning and procedure.

47. The step of the epidural placement that should be avoided in this patient is

A. Loss of resistance to air

B. Loss of resistance to hanging drop

C. Test dose injection

D. Bolus dose of local anesthetics

48. Once the epidural is adequately placed and the patient is immersed sitting in the

water tank, the physiologic change that should be expected is

A. Decreased central venous pressure

B. Increased vital capacity

C. Increased functional residual capacity

D. Lower extremity peripheral pooling

49. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy therapy proceeds with the shock wave

synchronized with what ECG phase of the cardiac cycle?

A. The P wave

B. The Q wave

C. The R wave

D. The S wave

50. Which of the following statements would be considered false with regard to

extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)?

A. Delivery of the shock wave is timed to coincide with the ventricular refractory

phase

B. Neuraxial anesthesia up to T2 sensory level is adequate

C. If able to control ventilation, use high tidal volumes and low respiratory rate

D. Removal of the patient from the bath water can be accompanied by a decrease

in the blood pressure

51. All of the following are contraindications to immersion extracorporeal shock wave

lithotripsy, except

A. Harrington rod implants

B. Abdominally placed rate-responsive cardiac pacemaker

C. Positive pregnancy test

D. Large calcified abdominal aortic aneurysm

52. Which of the following is considered the most sensitive indicator of impending

traumatic renal failure?

A. Decreased creatinine clearance

B. Decreased central venous pressure

C. Decreased fractional excretion of sodium

D. Increased urine osmolality

53. A 26-year-old male patient with Alport syndrome requires hemodialysis (every third

day) and presents for an arteriovenous fistula creation. His last dialysis treatment

was yesterday. Patient requests general anesthesia for this procedure. Which of the

following drugs will have a prolonged duration of action?

A. Fentanyl

B. Neostigmine

C. Atracurium

D. Methadone

54. Each of the following is associated with acute tubular necrosis, except

A. Hyaline casts

B. Urine specific gravity <1.010

C. Muddy casts

D. Fractional excretion of sodium of 4%

Questions 55 to 56

A 75-year-old patient who is awaiting urgent laparotomy has had oliguria for the past 12

hours since the onset of his acute abdominal pain last night. His medical history includes

well-controlled hypertension. Vital signs include a BP of 120/65 mm Hg and a HR of 72

bpm. His laboratory findings reveal

Urine osmolality: 550 mOsm/L

Urine specific gravity: 1.020

Urine sodium concentration: 15 mmol/L

Fractional excretion of sodium: 0.5%

Ratio of urine-to-plasma urea concentration: 10

55. The most appropriate treatment of his oliguria is

A. Fluid restriction

B. Fluid challenge

C. Renal ultrasound

D. Foley placement

56. Fluid resuscitation is done with 4 L of normal saline. The potential acid–base

abnormality that can occur is

A. Hyperchloremic acidosis

B. Metabolic alkalosis

C. Hyperkalemic acidosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

57. A 67-year-old patient with chronic renal failure presents for hip arthroscopy to

address and treat his labral tears and associated hip pain. The best option for opioid

therapy in this patient is

A. Meperidine

B. Codeine

C. Dextropropoxyphene

D. Fentanyl

CHAPTER 14 ANSWERS

1. B. The initial reduction in core temperature during general anesthesia is caused

by redistribution of heat from the core to the periphery, which can be attenuated by

increasing ambient temperature to minimize the gradient.

2. D. Perioperative morbidity related to obesity is associated with changes in

respiratory (e.g., difficult airway, decreased functional residual capacity),

cardiovascular (e.g., increased cardiac output), and gastrointestinal (e.g.,

gastroesophageal reflex disease, increased abdominal pressure) systems that will

impact the delivery of anesthesia. Given that metabolism of inhalational agents is

increased over normal weight patients, higher minimum alveolar concentrations may

be required. Atracurium (including cis-atracurium) is metabolized via Hofmann

degradation and is unaffected by the obese state.

3. B. Aspiration of acidic gastric juices poses a potential threat during induction

and intubation. H2

-blockers (e.g., cimetidine, ranitidine) can decrease gastric volume

and raise pH to a level that should be protective from fatal aspiration.

Metoclopramide promotes gastrointestinal motility without directly affecting pH

itself. 5-HT3

(serotonin) receptor antagonism (e.g., ondansetron) and D2

(dopamine)

Comments

Search This Blog

Archive

Show more

Popular posts from this blog

TRIPASS XR تري باس

CELEPHI 200 MG, Gélule

ZENOXIA 15 MG, Comprimé

VOXCIB 200 MG, Gélule

Kana Brax Laberax

فومي كايند

بعض الادويه نجد رموز عليها مثل IR ، MR, XR, CR, SR , DS ماذا تعني هذه الرموز

NIFLURIL 700 MG, Suppositoire adulte

Antifongiques مضادات الفطريات

Popular posts from this blog

علاقة البيبي بالفراولة بالالفا فيتو بروتين

التغيرات الخمس التي تحدث للجسم عند المشي

إحصائيات سنة 2020 | تعداد سكَان دول إفريقيا تنازليا :

ما هو الليمونير للأسنان ؟

ACUPAN 20 MG, Solution injectable

CELEPHI 200 MG, Gélule

الام الظهر

VOXCIB 200 MG, Gélule

ميبستان

Popular posts from this blog

TRIPASS XR تري باس

CELEPHI 200 MG, Gélule

Popular posts from this blog

TRIPASS XR تري باس

CELEPHI 200 MG, Gélule

ZENOXIA 15 MG, Comprimé

VOXCIB 200 MG, Gélule

Kana Brax Laberax

فومي كايند

بعض الادويه نجد رموز عليها مثل IR ، MR, XR, CR, SR , DS ماذا تعني هذه الرموز

NIFLURIL 700 MG, Suppositoire adulte

Antifongiques مضادات الفطريات

Popular posts from this blog

Kana Brax Laberax

TRIPASS XR تري باس

PARANTAL 100 MG, Suppositoire بارانتال 100 مجم تحاميل

الكبد الدهني Fatty Liver

الم اسفل الظهر (الحاد) الذي يظهر بشكل مفاجئ bal-agrisi

SEDALGIC 37.5 MG / 325 MG, Comprimé pelliculé [P] سيدالجيك 37.5 مجم / 325 مجم ، قرص مغلف [P]

نمـو الدمـاغ والتطـور العقـلي لـدى الطفـل

CELEPHI 200 MG, Gélule

أخطر أنواع المخدرات فى العالم و الشرق الاوسط

Archive

Show more