HEMATOLOGY

 

HEMATOLOGY

1- Vitamin K antagonist :

a- warfarin

b- Heparin

c- Protein C

d- Antithrombin III

2- One of the intrinsic pathway

a- factor XI

b- factor XIII

c- factor I

d- factor VII

3- Para hemophilia is the deficiency of

a- factor VIII

b- factor IX

c- factor V

d- factor VII

4- Eosinophilia is seen in :

a- food sensitivity

b- Drug sensitivity

c- Atopic dermatitis

d- all of the above

5- Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic proliferation of:

a- lymphocytes

b- Granulocytes

c- Plasma cells

d- Monocytes

6- Test for intrinsic pathway:

a- bleeding time

b- Thrombin time

c- Prothrombin time

d- Partial thromboplastin time PTT

7- Paul-Bunnel test is done to diagnose:

a- multiple myeloma

b- Hodgkin’s disease

c- Infectious mononucleosis

d- all of the above

8- increased platelet count is :

a- thrombocytopenia

b- thrombopoietin

c- thrombocytosis

d- all of the above

9- Decreased platelet count is:

a- thrombocytopenia

b- Thrombopoietin

c- Thrombocytosis

d- all of the above

10- All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except:

a- cytotoxic drugs

b- Aplastic anemia

c- Hemorrhage

d- Radiotherapy

11- Prothrombin time is done to test:

a- Intrinsic pathway only

b- Extrinsic pathway only

c- Extrinsic and common pathways

d- Intrinsic and common pathways

12- Normal bleeding time by Duke’s method:

a- 2-7 minutes

b- 2-7 seconds

c- 2-4 minutes

d- 2-4 seconds

13- Normal partial thromboplastin time (PPT) is :

a- 3-4 minutes

b- 30-45 seconds

c- 12-15 seconds

d- 12-15 minutes

14- Hemophilia A is the deficiency of :

a- factor V

b- factor VIII

c- factor IX

d- all of the above

15-the most common form of leukemia in children is:

a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia

b- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

c- Acute myeloid leukemia

d- Chronic myeloid leukemia

16- Bence-Jones protein is present in cases of:

a- chronic myeloid myeloma

b-acute myeloid myeloma

c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma

d- multiple myeloma

17- Reed-Sternberg cells are found in cases of :

a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia

b- Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

c- Hodgkin’s lymphoma

d- Multiple myeloma

18- Normal platelet count is :

a- 150,000 to 450,000/min3

b- 400,000 to 800,000/min3

c- 4,000 to 11,000 /min3

d- 50,000 to 100,000/min3

19- Antithrombin III inhibits:

a- factor Va

b- factor VIIIa

c- factor Xa

d- all of the above

20- Heparin potentiate the action of :

a- protein C

b- protein S

c- antithrombin III

d- warfarin

21- Factor II of blood clotting is:

a- Christmas factor

b- Fibrinogen

c- Prothrombin

d- Thromboplastin

22- One of fibrinogen group is : I V VIII XIII

a- II

b- V

c- VII

d- IX

23- Fibrinogen is converted to soluble fibrin by:

a- prothrombin

b- Thromboplastin

c- Thrombin

d- all of the above

24- Thrombopoitin control the formation of:

a- red blood cells

b- White blood cells

c- platelets

d- non of the above

25- Normal prothrombin time (PT) is:

a- 30-45 seconds

b- 30-45 minutes

c- 12-15 seconds

d- 12-15 minutes

26- Parasitic disease is associated with:

a- monocytosis - bacteria

b- Lymphocytosis - virus

c- Basophilia - sensitive

d- Eosinophilia

27- Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic for:

a- acute lymphoblastic leukemia

b- Acute myeloid leukemia

c- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

d- chronic myeloid leukemia

28- Normal fibrinogen level:

a- 150-400 gm%

b- 150-400 mg %

c- 15-40 mg %

d- 15-40 gm %

29-infectious mononucleosis is caused by:

a- echo virus

b- coxsaki virus

c- Epstein Barr virus EBV

d- Cytomegalo virus

30- Atypical lymphocytosis is seen in cases of:

a- Hodgkin’s lymphoma

b- Multiple myeloma

c- Infectious mononucleosis

d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

31-monospot test is done to diagnose:

a- Acute myeloid leukemia

b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c- Infectious mononucleosis

d- Infectious lymphocytosis

32- The test which depend on blood platelets & capillary

fragility is:

a- prothrombin time

b- Thrombin time

c- Bleeding time

d- Clotting time

33- Fibrin is broken to fibrin degradation products by the action

of:

a- Prothrombin

b- Thrombin

c- Plasminogen

d- Plasmin

34- Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:

a- low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase

b- Myeloblast with Auer rods

c- Neutrophil with Pleger-Huet anomaly

d- all of the above

35- Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by :

a- Heparin

b-Histamine

c- Urokinase

d- Serotonin

36- Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen

in cases of:

a- Hemophilia A

b- Vitamin K deficiency

c- Diffuse intravascular coagulation

d- Von Willebrand disease

37- Activated protein C degrades:

a- factor IXa

b- Factor VIIIa

c- Factor Xa

d- Factor Xia

38- Heparin is found in

a- Neutrophil

b- Basophil

c- Acidophil

d- all of the above

39- In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is

a- PT

b- PTT

c- Bleeding time

d- all of the above

40- Bleeding due to overdose of heparin is managed by giving:

a- Vit K

b- Vit C

c- Vit A

d- Protamin sulphate

41- Streptokinase and staphylokinase convert:

a- Prothrombin to thrombin

b- Fibrinogen to fibrin

c- Soluble fibrin to insoluble fibrin

d- Plasminogen to plasmin

42- Test for platelet function:

a- Clot retraction

b- Platelet aggregation

c- Platelet adhesion

d- all of the above

43- Prolonged PT occurs in cases of deficiency of:

a- Factor III

b- Factor IV

c- Factor V

d- all of the above

44- normal thrombin time (TT):

a- 30-45 sec

b- 2-4 min

c- 3-9 min

d- 10-20 sec

45- cause of vitamin K deficiency:

a- Obstructive jaundice

b- Prolonged use of antibiotics

c- Inadequate intake

d- all of the above

46- Cause of Hyper- Coagulable state:

a- Aplastic anemia

b- Cytotxic drugs

c- Polcythemia

d- Radiotherapy

47-Physiological cause of neutrophilia:

a- New born

b- Radiotherapy

c- Cytotoxic drugs

d- Prolonged use of antibiotics

48- Leucocytosis characterized by the presence of immature

cells and high neutrophil alkaline phosphatase:

a- chronic myeloid leukemia

b- Acute myeloid leukemia

c- Leukaemid reaction

d- non of the above

49- Normal coagulation time (CT):

a- 3-9 min

b- 3-9 sec

c- 30-40 sec

d- 30-40 min

50- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma

accelerated by the addition of a clotting factor activator (kaolin)

, phospholipids and calcium:

a- coagulation time

b- Prothrombin time

c- Partial thromboplastin time

d- Thrombin time

51- The test which measures the clotting time of citrated plasma

to which thromboplastin and calcium has been added:

a- thrombin time

b- Prothrombin time

c- Coagulation time

d- Partial thromboplastin time

52- The test which is widely used as a control and follow up test

to control anticoagulant treatment:

a- APTT

b- PTT

c- PT

d- TT

53- A disease characterized by progressive neoplastic

proliferation of immature white cell precursor:

a- acute leukemia

b- Chronic leukemia

c- Lymphoma

d- Multiple myeloma

54- The absolute lymphocyte count may be up to 300,000 or

more between 70 and 90 % of white cells in the blood film

appear as small lymphocytes . THE CASE IS:

a- Acute myeloid leukemia

b- Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c- Chronic myeloid leukemia

d- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

55- Variation in red cells size:

a- Poikilcytosis

b- Anisocytosis

c- Reticulocytosis

d- Leukocytosis

56- Dark red cells with no area of central pallor:

a- Stomatocyte

b- Spherocyte

c- Acathocyte

d- Schistocyte

57- Microcytic hypochromic anemia

a- hereditary spherocytosis

b- Sickle cell anemia

c- Iron deficiency anemia

d- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

58- Target cells are seen in cases of:

a- folic acid deficiency

b- Iron deficiency anemia

c- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

d- Thalassemia

59- Red cells with elongated area of central pallor:

a- spherocyte

b- Schistocyte

c- Stomatocyte

d- Elliptocutes

60- .................... Symmetric, short , sharp projection from the

red cells and seen in iron deficiency anemia:

a- echinocyte

b- Acanthocyte

c- Elliptocyte

d- Ovalocyte

61- .................. is a condition in which the absorption of vit

B12 is greatly impaired due to failure or marked reduction of

intrinsic factor secretion:

a- fauvism

b- fanconi’s anemia

c-sickle cell anemia

d- thalassemia

e- pernicious anemia

62- Hyperchromic cells are seen in:

a- iron deficiency anemia

b- Thalassemia

c- Hereditary spherocytosis

d- Sickle cell anemia

63- A prolonged low rate of bleeding results in:

a- normochromic anemia

b- Hypochromic anemia

c- Hyperchromic anemia

d- non of the above

64- Schilling test is done in diagnosis of:

a- iron deficiency anemia

b- Pernicious anemia

c- Aplastic anemia

d- folic acid deficiency

65- Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal

hemoglobin

cause:

a- sickle cell anemia

b- Aplastic anemia

c- Pernicious anemia

d- Thalassemia

66- Neutrophils represent............... of circulating leukocyte:

a- 2-8 %

b- 0-1 %

c- 50-70 %

d- 2-4 %

67- ............. are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells:

a- platelet

b- Leukocyte

c- Erythrocyte

d- Macrophages

68- ................. represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes

a- lymphocytes

b- Neutrophils

c- Monocytes

d- Eosinophilis

69- ............... have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their

cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in

blood smear

a- neutrophils

b- Eosinophilis

c- Basophiles

d- Lymphocytes

70- The cell which is responsible for antibody production is:

a- moncytes

b- T-lymphocytes

c- B-lymphocytes = plasma cell

d- Neutrophils

71- ...... is a curved cell with sharp ends seen in

haemoglobinopathies (HBS)

a- sickle cell

b- Spherocyte

c- Ovalocyte

d- Stomatocyte

72- All of the following is correct about sickle cell anemia

except:

a- leg ulcers

b- Gall stones

c- Enlargement of spleen

d- Attacks of pain

73- ........... is a single, large, rounded , dark , purple remnant

of nucleus

a- Heinz body

b- Howeel-Jolly body

c- Pappenheimer body

d- Cabot ring

74- Agranulocyte:

a- neutrophil

b- Lymphocyte

c- Basophile

d- Eosinophil

75- Pica ( craving to eat unusual substance such as clay or ice) is

one of the symptoms of:

a- G6PD deficiency

b- Thalassemia

c- Megaloblastic anemia

d- Iron deficiency anemia

76- In ................. there’s a decreased or absent hemosiderin in

bone marrow

a- sideroblastic anemia

b- Iron deficiency anemia

c- Megaloblastic anemia

d- Hemolytic anemia

77- Chloramphenicol may cause ............. anemia in long term

therapy

a- iron deficiency

b- Vit B12 deficiency

c- folic acid deficiency

d- Aplastic anemia

78- .......... is the fluid (with anticoagulant) component of blood

, it contains salt & organic compounds:

a- plasma

b- Serum

c- Hemoglobin

d- Billirubin

79- Poikilocytosis is:

a- variation in red cell size

b- Variation in red cell color

c- Variation in red cell shape

d- non of the above

80- Red cell fragments:

a- echinocyte

b- Elliptocyte

c- Schistocyte

d- Stomatocyte

81- It is a defect of red cell member

a- Thalassemia

b- Sickle cell anemia

c- Hereditary spherocytosis

d- Megaloblastic anemia

82- All of the following is correct regarding spherocytosis

except:

a- normocytic normochromic anemia

b- Decreased reticulocyte count

c- Raised plasma bilirubin

d- Increased osmotic fragility

83- Heinz bodies are seen in cases of

a- hereditary spherocytosis

b- Hereditary elliplocytosis

c- G6PD deficiency

d- sickle cell anemia

84- .................. is caused by substitution of amino acid

(valine) instead of glutamic acid at position No.#6 in the beta

chain of hemoglobin

a- Hb-A

b- Hb-A2

c- Hb –F

d- Hb –S sickle cell

85- Atrophy of the spleen is seen in cases of:

a- Thalassemia

b- Sickle cell anemia

c- G6PD deficiency

d- Hereditary elliplocytosis

86- iron deficiency lead to :

a- normocytic normochromic anemia

b- microcytic hypochromic anemia

c- macrocytic anemia

d- hemolytic anemia

87- Neurological symptoms are seen in cases of:

a- iron deficiency anemia

b- folic acid deficiency

c- Vit B12 deficiency

d- all of the above

88- Megaloplastic hematopoiesis is seen in cases of:

a- iron deficiency anemia

b- folic acid deficiency

c- Vit B12 deficiency

d- Vit C deficiency

89- Fanconi’s anemia is a type of :

a - vit B12 deficiency

b- aplastic anemia

c- Thalassemia

d- folic acid deficiency anemia

90- the most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood smear of

adult is :

a- lymphocyte

b- Monocyte

c- Eosinophil

d- Neutrophil

91- The first line of defense against parasites:

a- neutrophils

b- Basophile

c- Eosinophil

d- Lymphocyte

92- ................. play a role in immediate and delayed

hypersensitivity:

a- monocyte

b- Lymphocyte

c- Eosinophil

d- Basophile

93- The largest leukocyte is :

a- neutrophils

b- Lymphocyte

c- Monocyte

d- Basophile

94- Cell which participate in cell mediated immunity:

a- monocyte

b- B- lymphocyte

c- T- lymphocyte

d- neutrophils

95- ......... promotes blood clotting and help to prevent blood

loss from damaged blood vessels:

a- platelets

b- WBCs

c- RBCs

d- all of the above

96-antibody induced hemolytic disease in new born that is

caused by blood group incompatibility between mother and

fetus:

a- hemolytic uremic syndrome

b- Erythroblastosis fetalis

c- Hereditary spherocytosis

d- Thromboloc thrombocytopenic purpurea

97- Young red blood cell with cytoplasmic RNA:

a- spherocyte

b- Reticulocyte

c- Stomatocyte

d- elliptocyte

98- Normal adult hemoglobin tetramer is:

a- 2 alpha : 2 gama

b- 2 alpha : 2 beta

c- 2 alpha : 2 delta

d- 2 beta : 2 gama

99- ............... represent 2-4 % of total leukocyte:

a- neutrophils

b- Basophile

c- Eosinophil

d- Monocyte

100- ............ are small cytoplasmic fragment derived from

megakaryocytic:

a- RBCs

b- WBCs

c- Platelet

d- non of the above

101 - .............. is the reduction in the amount of circulating

hemoglobin , red blood cells or both:

a- polycythemia

b- Anemia

c- Hemophilia

d- Leucopenia

102- Thalassemia is :

a- microcytic anemia

b- Macrocytic anemia

c- Normocytic anemia

d- non of the above

103- Vit B12 deficiency lead to :

a- hemolytic anemia

b- Microcytic anemia

c- Normocytic anemia

d- Megaloblastic anemia

104- Lymphocyte represent .............. of total leukocyte:

a- 20-40 %

b- 50-70 %

c- 2-8 %

d- 1-5 %

105- Plumer- Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of:

a- iron deficiency anemia

b- Vit B12 deficiency anemia

c- Aplastic anemia

d- folic acid deficiency anemia

106- peripheral, pale inclusions that push out the cell membrane

and composed of hemoglobin:

a- cabot ring

b- Pappenheimer body

c- Howell-Jolly body

d- Heinz body

107- it’s an acute hemolytic anemia occurring after the ingestion

of broad bean in individual with deficiency of G6PD :

a-thalassemia

b- Favism

c- Fanconi’s anemia

d- Cooley’s anemia

108-................... is a multiple small , peripheral grape like

purple clusters of iron:

a- cabot ring

b- Heinz body

c- Howell-Jolly body

d- Pappenheimer body

109- the blood smear gives the physician information

concerning:

a- morphology of RBCs and platelet

b- Presence of abnormal inclusion

c- Presence of immature cells

d- all of the above

110- hypersplenism is one of the causes of :

a- iron deficiency anemia

b- Hemolytic anemia

c- Aplastic anemia

d- Megaloblastic anemia

111- Increased reticulocytes count is seen in cases of:

a- hereditary spherocytosis

b- G6PD deficiency

c- Sickle cell anemia

d- all of the above

112- The antibody which can pass the placenta:

a- Ig M

b- Ig G

c- Ig D

d- Ig E

113- ......... is an autoimmune disease in which there is an

immune destruction of the acid and pepsin secreating cells of the

stomach:

a- fanconi’s anemia

b- cooley’s anemia

c-pernicious anemia

d- non of the above

114- All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia

except:

a- pancytopenia

b-markedly hypocellular marrow

c- Increased reticulocyte count

d- Markedly increase in serum erythropoietin

115- Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:

a- elastase

b- Myeloperoxidase

c- Lysozyme

d- Histamine

116- Monocytes represent ................... of total leukocyte:

a- 0-1 %

b- 2-4 %

c- 2-8 %

d- 20-4 %

117- the reagent used for leukocyte count is :

a- citric acid

b- Acetic acid

c- Hydrochloric acid

d- Sulphoric acid

BACTERIOLOGY

118- All are Prokaryotic cells except:

a- Fungi

b- Bacteria

c - Chlamydia

d- Mycoplasma

119- Viruses:

a- Contain only DNA or RNA

b - They Contain ribosome

c- Did not affected by antibiotics

d- a+c

120- All of these are essential structure except:

a- Nuclear body

b- Spores

c- Cell wall

d- Plasma Membrane

121- ________ is giving the shape to the bacteria

a.- Cytoplasmic Membrane

b- Capsule

c- Cell Wall

d- All of the above

122- One of its functions is selective permeability

a- Cell wall

b- Plasma membrane

c- Capsule

d- Spores

123- They are responsible for Haemagglutination Phenomenon

a- Flagella

b- Fimbria

c- Capsule

d- Cell wall

124- Clostridium Tetani is:

a- Atrichous bacteria

b- Mono-trichous bacteria

c- Amphi-trichous bacteria

d- Peri-trichous bacteria

125- Short curved or straight rods, motile by single polar

flagellum

a- spirochaeta

b- Vibrio

c- Escherichia

d- Lactobacillus

126- Small gram negative cocci, occur in pairs

a- staphylococcus

b- streptococcus

c- neisseria

d- non of the above

127- Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to

another by

bacteriophages is:

a. Transformation

b. Tansduction

c. Conjugation

d. Mutation

128- Salmonella are:

a- Obligatory Aerobic bacteria

b.- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria

c- Facultative Anaerobic bacteria

d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

129- According to pH, vibrio cholera is

a- Osmophilic bacteria

b- Basophilic bacteria

c- Acidophilic bacteria

d- Neutrophilic bacteria

130- Staphylococci are:

a- Atrichous bacteria

b- Mono-trichous bacteria

c- Amphi-trichous bacteria

d- Peri-trichous bacteria

131- During replication of DNA, copying errors may occur and

this is called

a- Conjugation

b- Transduction

c- Transformation

d- Mutation

132- Obligatory Anaerobic bacteria

a- grow only in presence of oxygen

b- grow only in absence of oxygen

c- grow either in presence or absence of oxygen

d- grow in presence of oxygen traces and 5 – 10% CO2

133- Neutrophilic bacteria grow well at

a- pH 8.5 – 9.0

b- pH 7.2 – 7.4

c- pH 5.0 – 5.5

d- pH 2.5 – 3.0

134- The rate of cell death increase and bacterial growth

stopped, this is

a- Adaptation phase

b- Exponential phase .

c- Stationary phase.

d- Decline Phase

135- Beta-hemolytic

a- Cause complete hemolysis of RBC’s

b- Cause chemical change of Hemoglobin in RBC’s

c- Do not cause hemolysis

d- None of them

146- Mesophilic bacteria grow at:

a- 37°C

b- 14°C

c- 60°C

d- 120°C

137- Circulation of Bacteria and its toxins in blood

a- Pyaemia

b- Toxemia

c.- Bacteremia - without toxins

d- Septicemia

138- Disinfections that applied on living or injured tissues:

a- Sterilization

b- Antiseptic

c- Sanitation

d- Decontamination

139- Hot air oven is used for sterilization of

a- Glass

b- Rubber Gloves

c.- Plastic Syringes

d- Catheters

140- Disinfectant for superficial fungal infection

a- Phenol

b- Potassium permanganate

c- Chlorine

d- Hypochlorite compounds

141- Rifampin

a- inhibit cell wall synthesis

b- inhibit protein synthesis

c- inhibit folic acid pathway

d- inhibit mRNA synthesis

142- Transacetylase inactivate

a- aminoglycosides

b- chloramphenicol

c- penicillin

d- cephalosporins

143- The color of gram positive bacteria is

a- Yellow

b- Black.

c- Pink

d- Violet

144- Selective media for fungi

a- blood agar

b- Mac Conkey agar

c- Nutrient agar

d- Sabourand’s dextrose agar

145- Histoplasma is a :

a- Systemic mycosis

b- Sub – Cutaneous mycosis

c- Cutaneous mycosis

d- Superficial mycosis

146- All are asexual spores produced by mould except

a- Conidio – spores

b- Sporangio – spores

c- Endospores

d- Arthro – spores

147- They reproduce only by Asexual reproduction

a- Blastomycosis

b- Deutromycosis

c- Ascomycetes

d- Zygomycetes

148- The functions of cell wall is all of the following except:

a- Giving the shape to the bacteria

b- Carrying somatic antigen

c-Selective permeability& transport of solutes = plasma membrane

d- Protect the bacteria from plasmolysis

149- Atrichous Bacteria are:

a- Bacteria contain one flagellum

b- Bacteria contain 2 flagella

c- Bacteria without flagella

d- Bacteria with a tuft of flagella

150-__________ are essential for host cell attachment:

a- Flagella

b- Fimbria

c- Spores

d- Capsules

151- Irregular clusters of spherical cells:

a- Streptococcus

b- Staphylococcus

c- Lactobacillus

d- Escherichia

152- Clostridium Botulinum is:

a- Obligatory Aerobic Bacteria

b- Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria

c- Obligatory Anaerobic Bacteria

d- Micro- aerophilic Bacteria

153- Basophilic Bacteria grow well at:

a- pH 8.5 – 9.0

b- pH 7.2 – 7.4

c- pH 5.0 – 5.5

d- None of the above

154- Cells are divided at high & constant rate:

a- Decline Phase

b- Stationary Phase

c- Log Exponential Phase

d- Adaptation Phase

155- The dominant bacterial species in dental plaque are:

a- Coagulase Negative Staphylococci

b- Lactobacillus

c- Bacteroides

d- Streptococcus Sanguis

156- The spread of Pyogenic Bacteria in blood stream to

different organs & produce multiple abscess is:

a- Septicemia

b- Bacteremia

c-Toxemia

d- Pyaemia

157- Inhibit the growth of micro organisms

a- Bacteriostatic

b- Bactericidal

c- Fungicidal

d- Germicidal

158- To sterilize fluid damaged by heat:

a- Gaseous Sterilization

b- Heat Sterilization

c- Filtration

d- Ionizing Radiation

159- For water disinfection we use:

a- Hydrogen peroxide

b- Formaldehyde

c- Chlorine

d- Hypochlorite compounds

160- Mechanism of action of penicillin:

a- Block peptidoglycan synthesis

b- Inhibit peptidyglycan cross – linking

c- inhibit folic acid pathway

d- inhibit protein synthesis

161- Sulfonamides:

a- inhibit cell wall synthesis

b- inhibit protein synthesis

c- inhibit DNA synthesis

d- inhibit folic acid pathway

162- Acetylase inactivates:

a- B – Lactam antibiotics

b- Aminoglycosides

c- Cloramphenicol

d- All of the above

163- Ringworm disease is caused by

a- Zygomycetes

b- Ascomycetes

c- Blastomycosis

d- None of the above

164- For wet – mount technique we add:

a- NaoH

b- K oH

c- H2 O2

d- All of the above

165- They are transmitted by arthropods

a- Chlamydia

b- Spirochetes

c- Mycoplasma

d- All of the above

166- In the past they were listed as large viruses

a- Richettsia

b- Mycoplasma

c- Chlamydia

d- None of the above

167- Bacteria multiply by:

a- Replication cycle

b- Simple binary fission

c- Sexual reproduction

d- All of the above

168- It protects bacteria from antibiotics

a- Capsule

b- Cell membrane

c- Flagella

d- Fimbria

169- Vibro cholera is:

a- Mono –trichous bacteria

b- Atrichous bacteria

c- Lopho-trichous bacteria

d- Peri-trichous bacteria

170- Short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella

a- Spirochaeta

b- Lactobacillus

c- Escherichia coli

d- Vibrio

171- To take up soluble DNA fragments derived from other,

closely related species is:

a. Mutation

b. Transformation

c. Transduction

d. Conjugation

172- Tuberculosis are

a- micro-airophilic

b- Facultative anaerobic

c- Obligatory anaerobic

d- Obligatory aerobic

173- According to pH, Lactobacillus is

a- Neutrophlic bacteria

b- Acidophilic bacteria

c- Basophilic bacteria

d- None of the above

174- Bacteria without cell Wall

a- Chlamydia

b- Rickettsia

c- Mycoplasma

d.- Spirochetes

175- Brucella Melitensis is

a- Obligatory aerobic bacteria

b- Obligatory anaerobic bacteria

c- Facultative anaerobic bacteria

d- Micro-aerophilic bacteria

176- Pseudomonas aeroginosa is

a- Peri-trichous bacteria

b- Lopho-trichous bacteria

c- Amphi-trichous bacteria

d- Monotrichous bacteria

177- Genetic information of bacteria is carried on

a- Messenger RNA

b- Transfer RN|A

c- Transcript RNA

d- Double – Stranded DNA

178- Thermophilic bacteria grow at

a- 60 – 80 °C

b- 0 - 20°C

c-. 37°C

d- 100 - 120°C

179- Acidophilic bacteria grow at

a- pH 7.2 – 7.4

b- pH 5.0 – 5.5

c- pH 8.5 – 9.0

d- None of the above

180- Mycoplasma is

a- Neutrophilic bacteria

b- Acidophilic bacteria

c- Basophilic bacteria

d- All of the above

181- It is the adaptation of bacteria to the fresh medium

a- Lag phase

b- Decline phase

c- Logarithmic Phase

d- Stationary phase

182- Bacteria which do not cause hemolysis is

a- Beta-Hemolytic

b- Alpha-Hemolytic

c- Gama Hemolytic

d- None of the above

183- Normal flora of Lower intestine are all of the following

except:

a- Staphylococci

b- Diphtheroids

c- Shigella

d- Lactobacillus

184- Opportunistic pathogens are all of the following except:

a- Cause a disease when the host defense are suppressed.

b- Are normal flora of healthy body

c- Are greatly harmful

d- Do not invade the body or tissue.

185- For disinfection of mattresses :

a- Hot air oven

b- Autoclave

c- Ethylene Oxide

d- Hydrogen Peroxide

186- Pyschrophilic bacteria grow at:

a- 10٠°C

b- 6٠°C

c- 14°C

d- 37°C

187- Bacteria which contain chlorophyll

a- Heterotrophic bacteria

b- Autotrophic bacteria

c- Photosynthetic bacteria

d- All of the above

188- Tricophyton is one of

a- Yeast

b- Moulds

c- Dermatophyte

d- Dimorphic Fungi

189- Plastomyces is one of

a- Dermatophytes

b- Dimorphic Fungi

c- Yeast

d- Moulds

190- Color of gram negative bacteria is

a- Violet

b- Green

c- Red

d- Black

191- Acid Fast Bacteria

a- Salmonella

b- Shigella

c- M. Tuberculosis

d- E – Coli

192- Spherical or avoid cells occurring in chains

a- Staphylococci

b- Streptococci

c- Lactobacillus

d- Spiro chaeta

193- .................. carries the genetic information

a- the envelope

b- the capsid

c- the nucleic acid

d- the prion

194- ........................ may be seen under light microscope

a- rota virus

b- influenza virus

c- herps virus

d- pox virus

195- viruses may be:

a- monomorphic

b- pleomorphic

c- dimorphic

d- all of the above

196- viral capside is formed of:

a- protein

b- glycogen

c- lipoprotein bilayer

d- glycoprotein

197- class III in Baltimor classification is:

a- double stranded DNA viruses

b- single stranded DNA viruses

c- double stranded RNA viruses

d- single stranded RNA viruses

198- Hierarchial virus classification system use the following

characters except:

a- nature of nucleic acid

b- capside symmetry

c- diameter of viron & capside

d- virus molecular weight

199- in viral replication which is true:

a- penetration is the 1st step

b- assembly is the last step

c- relaease is the last step

d- all of the above

200- viron:

a- may be extracellular phase of virus

b- may be intracellular phase of virus

c- can grow and replicate

d- means “ virus – like “

201- pleomorphic viruses means :

a- virus which have constant shape

b- virus that may appear in 2 forms

c- virus that have not a constant morphology

d- virus that have spherical shape

202- vapor of gold is used in :

a- shadow casting technique

b- negative staining technique

c- positive staining technique

d- non of the above

203- direct diagnosis of virus :

a- ELISA Antibody

b- CFT

c- IFT

d- PCR virus

204- all of the following are required in cell culture except:

a- neutral PH

b- presence of buffer salts

c- presence of antibiotics

d- incubation at 20 C (( 30-37 C))

205- all of the following are diagnostic molecular biological

technique except:

a- PCR

b- ELISA

c- nucleic acid hyperdization

d- DNA finger printing

206- PCR require all of the following except:

a- extracted DNA template

b- 2 specific primers

c- reation buffer

d- RNA polymerase

207- bacteriophage is :

a- virus that can be killed by antibiotic

b- virus that act like a bacteria

c- bacteria that act like a virus

d- virus that infect bacteria

208- all of the following viruses are transmitted by blood except:

a- HIV

b- HBV

c- HCV

d- herps virus

209-all of the following are RNA viruses except:

a- corona viridase

b- reoviridase

c- picorona viridase

d- pox viridase

210- penetration of naked virus is by :

a- fusion

b- endocytosis

c- translocation

d- all of the above

211- amniotic cavity inoculation is one type of virus culture in:

a- tissue wall

b- lab animals

c- embryonated egg

d- non of the above

212- ................. is an invitro method amplification of a short

sequence of target DNA

a- PCR

b- hyberdization

c- finger printing

d- all of the above

213- nucleic acid hyberdization means:

a- probe anneling or binding with it’s complementary

segment of NA

b- fragmentation of nucleic acid

c- amplification of nucleic acid

d- non of the above

214- DNA hyberdization is performed by:

a- primers

b- DNA labeled probe

c- restriction endonuclease

d- non of the above

215-PCR starts with :

a- annealing

b- denaturation of DNA

c-extension of primers

d- non of the above

216- .................... is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular

gene that can bind specially with it’s complementary piece of

DNA:

a- codon

b- probe

c- LCR

d- code

217- how many primers are used in PCR :

a- non

b- one

c- two

d- three

304-Lowenstein-Jensen media is used for the isolation for:

a- neisseria gonorrhea

b- mycobacterium tuberculosis

c- haemophilus influenza

d- staphylococcus aureus

305- Hekton-Enteric agar is the selective media for:

a- salmonella

b- streptococcus

c- staphylococcus

d- all of the above

306- the selective media for isolation of fungi is:

a- S-S agar

b- XLD agar

c- sabouraud glucose agar

d- Hekton-Enteric agar

307- gram positive rods with Chinese letter appearance:

a- mycobacterium tuberculosis

b- corynebacteria diphtheria

c- clostridium tetani

d- staphylococcus pneumonia

308- E lek test is done to diagnose :

a- streptococcus

b- staphylococcus aureus

c- clostridium tetani

d- corynebacteria diphtheria

309- all are lactose fermenter except:

a- E-COLI

b- proteus

c- klebsiella

d- enterobacter

310- produce pale colonies on MacConkey’s agar and have

tendency to swarm on blood agar:

a- salmonella

b- shigella

c- klebsiella

d- proteus

311- lactose frementer gram negative bacilli with mucoid

growth:

a- salmonella

b- shigella

c- klebsiella

d- proteus

312-non lactose fermenter gram negative bacilli produce H2S :

a- salmonella

b- shigella

c- klebsiella

d- proteus

313- Widal test is done for diagnosis of :

a- salmonella

b- shigella

c- E-coli

d- klebsiella

314- the causative agent of enteric fever:

a- salmonella

b- shigella

c- klebsiella

d- proteus

315- the most common cause of urinary tract infection :

a- E-coli

b- salmonella

c- shigella

d- streptococcus

316- an important cause of diarrhea in infant:

a- staphylococcus

b- E-coli

c- salmonella

d- shigella

317- the most common causative agent for peptic ulcer :

a- campylobacter

b- H-pylori

c- V-cholera

d- all of the above

318- TCBS is the selective media for isolation of:

a- H-pylori

b- V-cholera

c- E-coli

d- H influenza

319- gram negative bacilli strict aerobes grows on simple media

producing a characteristic greenish pigment:

a- campylobacter

b- pseudomonas

c- pasterulla

d- bordetella

320- the bacteria which cause scarlet fever:

a- staphylococcus

b- streptococcus

c- salmonella

d- shigella

321- antistreptolysin O titer (ASO) is done for the diagnosis of:

a- group A streptococcus

b- group B streptococcus

c- staphylococcus aureus

d- staphylococcus albus

323- Loffler’s serum is used for isolation of:

a- anthrax

b- clostridium

c- diphtheria

d- T.B

324- gas gangrene is caused by:

a- clostridium tetani

b- clostridium botulinum

c- clostridium welchii

d- non of the above (( clostridium perfinges ))

325- Bacillary dysentery is caused by:

a- salmonella

b- shigella

c- cholera

d- all of the above

326- the cause of plague:

a- Y-enterocolitica

b- Y-pestis

c- Y pseudotuberculsois

d- non of the above

327- treponema palladium is the cause of :

a- T.B

b- gonorrhea

c- syphilis

d- AIDS

328- the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is

done for diagnosis of:

a- T.B

b- gonorrhea

c- syphilis

d- AIDS

329- Trachoma is caused by:

a- mycoplasma

b- chlamydiae

c-richettsia

d- mycobacteria

391- M-tuberculsis bacilli stain with :

a- gram stain

b- Zheil Nelson stain

c- Gimesa stain

d- all of the above

392- AIDS is transmitted through :

a- food

b- blood

c- semen

d- (b) & (c)

393- bacteria which cause syphilis:

a- Neisseria gonorrhea

b- Viencent angina

c- Treponema palladium

d- Yersinia pestis

394- to diagnose syphilis:

a- RPR

b- VDRL

c- Wasserman

d- all of the above

395- streptococci secret:

a- streptolysin O

b- streptolysin S

c- streptokinase

d- all of the above

396- disease caused by streptococci:

a- scarlet fever

b- purperal sepsis

c- rheumatic fever

d- all of the above

397- staphylococci secrets:

a- coagulase enzyme

b- fibrinolysin

c- hyaluronidase

d- all of the above

398- gram positive bacilli:

a- Klebsilla

b- Salmonella

c- Proteus

d- C-diphtheria

399- meningeococcal meningitis is transmitted by :

a- food

b- droplet

c- touch

d- all of the above

400- dark field microscopy is used to diagnose :

a- T.B.

b- syphilis

c- gonorrhea

d- AIDS

401- it cause food poisining with flacid paralysis:

a- clostridium tetani

b- clostridium welchii

c- clostridium botulinium

d- all of the above

402- the infective stage of plasmodium vivax :

a-merozoites

b- sporozoites

c- schizont

d- trophozoite

403- Pirenella conica snail is the intermediate host of:

a- schistosoma haematobium

b- fasciola hiptica

c- heterphyes heterophyes

d- diphyllobothrium latum

404- Bulinus truncates snail is the intermediate host of :

a- fasciola hepatica

b- fasciola gigantica

c- schistosoma haematobium

d- schistosoma mansonii

405- to isolate meningiococci we have to culture the sample on:

a- Bordet Gengou

b- modified Thayer martin media

c- Lowenstein Jensen media

d- all of the above

406- to isolate fungi :

a- Brain-Heart infusion media

b- tissue culture

c- Lowenstein –Jensen media

d- chocolate agar

407- to isolate H- influenza:

a- blood agar

b- chocolate agar

c- mac Conkey media

d- all of the above

408- the bacteria which cause pseudomembrainous

conjunctivitis :

a- N.gonorrhea

b- C. diphtheria

c- staphylococcus

d- Chlamydia

409- the best sample to diagnose meningitis :

a- blood

b- sputum

c- CSF

d- urine

410- used to stain Chlamydia

a- gram stain

b- giemsa stain

c- wright stain

d- all of the above

411-........... is used as transport medium for sample in which

cholera is suspected

a- Cary-Blair media

b- Stuart media

c- Alkaline peptone water

d- glycerol

412- the color of XLD medium:

a- green

b- red

c- yellow

d- blue

413- CIN medium is used to isolate:

a- E.coli

b- Vibrio cholera

c- yersinia

d- salmonella

414- to make wet mount preparation:

a- 10 % KOH

b- 10 % Na OH

c- 10 % Na CO3

d- 10% Na Cl

415- we do wet mount preparation for vaginal smear To

diagnose:

a- T.vaginalis

b- N.gonorrhea

c- streptococci

d- staphylococci

416- to isolate viruses:

a- Loeffler media

b- tissue culture

c- Bordet –Gengou media

d- Brain- Heart infusion

417- to diagnose whooping cough :

a- Bordet –Gengou media

b- Lowenstein –Jensen media

c- modified Thayer martin media

d- New York city agar

418- to diagnose systemic infection we do :

a- urine culture

b- CSF culture

c- blood culture

d- sputum culture

419- we give no growth for blood culture after:

a- 1 week

b- 8 weeks

c- 6 weeks

d- 3 weeks

420- to dissolve mucous in sputum sample :

a- 10% NaOH

b- 30 % NaOH

c- 10 % KOH

d- 10% NaCl

421- mutualism means:

a- one partener benefits , other unaffected

b- both partner benefit

c- one partner benefit , other damaged

d- living together

422- Commensalisms means:

a- living together

b- one partner benefit , other damaged

c- both partner benefit

d- one partner benefits , other unaffected

423- Balantidium coli moves by:

a- flagella

b- cilia

d- pseudopod

d- all of the above

424- Mouth inhabitant:

a- Trichomonas hominis

b- Trichomonas tenax

c- Trichomonas vaginalis

d- giardia lamblia

425- Transmitted by sexual intercourse:

a- toxoplasma

b- giardia lamblia

c- Trichomonas vaginalis

d- all of the above

465- citrate utilization test is done to assist identification of:

a- gram +ve bacteria

b- gram –ve bacteria

c- entrobacteria

d- enterococcus

466- the Kovac's reagent used in the following biochemical tests:

a- catalase

b- coagulase

c- indole

d- methyl red

467- positive results for H2S production appear as .... Colour:

a- black

c- yellow

c- red

d- green

468-.......... Give positive coagulase test:

a- streptococci

b- staphylococcus aureus

c- staphylococcus saprophyticus

d- Escherichia coli

469- methyl red test is performed with:

a- Erlich reagent

b- Kovac's reagent

c- Voges proskaur

d- non of the above

470- ............ give positive result with urease test:

a- salmonella

b- shigella

c- Y. enterocolitica

d- all of the above

471-............. test is used to differentiate between bacteroides

& brucella:

a- indole

b- methyl red

c- H2S production

d- nitrate reduction

472- DNAase test is positive with:

a- streptococcus pneumonia

b- E.coli

c- staphylococcus aureus

d- staphylococcus epidermis

473- ............ solution used in the gram stain technique acts as

a mordant:

a- crystal violet

b- safranine

c- iodine

d- alcohol

474- the counter stain in Ziehl- Neelson stain is :

a- malachite green

b- methylene blue

c- iodine

d- (a) & (b)

475- bile solubility test is positive with :

a- streptococcus viridans

b- streptococcus pneumonia

c- streptococcus agalectiae

d- streptococcus pyrogenes

476-litmus milk decolorization test assist the identification of :

a- entrobacteria

b- bacteroides

c- brucella

d- enterococci

CHEMISTRY

330- .............. are substance produced by specialized cells of

the body and carried by blood stream where it affect other

specialized cells:

a- vitamins

b- enzymes

c- isoenzyme

d- hormones

331- ............... is a protein which catalyse one or more specific

biochemical reaction and not consumed during the reaction:

a- enzymes

b- hormones

c- vitamins

d- proteins

332- ............ is required in the hepatic synthesis of

prothrombin and the blood clotting factors and it’s deficiency is

observed in newborn infants:

a- vitamin E

b- vitamin A

c- vitamin K

d- vitamin D

333- there are enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but differ

in there physical properties:

a- vitamins

b- adjuvents

c- isoenzyme

d- hormones

334- it’s functionis to maintain adequate serum level of calcium:

a- vitamin E

b- vitamin A

c- vitamin K

d- vitamin D

335-the inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites on the

enzyme this type of inhibition is called:

a- competitive inhibition

b- non competitive inhibition

c- surface recognition

d- product concentration

336- ........... found in cartilage consist of a core protein to

which the linear carbohydrates chain are covalently attached:

a- glycoprotein

b- proteoglycan

c- link protein

d- hyaluronic acid

337- ............... is synthesized only by micro-organism , it’s not

present in plants but present in liver , it’s deficiency leads to

pernicious anemia:

a- vit C

b- vit B12

c-vit B1

d- vit B2

338- the brown color of the stool is due to the presence of:

a- urobilinogen

b- urobilin

c- porphyrin

d- bilirubin

339- the degradation of heme takes place in the .............

particularly in the liver and spleen

a- reticulocytes

b- erythrocytes

c- reticuloendothelial cells

d- non of the above

340- increased Hb destruction , the liver is unable to cup the

greater load of pigment and bilirubin level well rises this is

called :

a- hepatogenous jaundice

b- hemolytic jaundice

c- obstructive jaundice

d- non of the above

341- ............ plays a role in visual cycle it’s deficiency leads to

night blindness, β-carotene is the major precursor of this

vitamin in human:

a- vitamin E

b- vitamin A

c- vitamin K

d- vitamin D

342- a large percentage of the ........... requirement in humans is

supplied by intestinal bacteria:

a- biotin

b- niacin

c- folic acid

d- thiamin

343- .............. are organic compounds required by the body in

trace amount , can’t be synthesized by humans , but supplied by

diet:

a- enzymes

b- vitamins

c- hormones

d- proteins

344- it facilitate the absorption of iron by reducing it to ferrus

state in the stomach and it’s deficiency result in scurvy:

a- vit C

b- vit B

c- vit D

d- vit A

345- it’s function is to transport oxygen from the lung to the

tissue:

a- haptoglobin

b- hemoglobin

c- bilirubin

d- myoglobin

346- .............. act as an antioxidant and it’s deficiency cause

liver degeneration:

a- vit E

b- vit A

c- vit K

d- vit D

347- it’s caused by liver parenchyma damage , the excretion of

bile greatly decreased and the concentration of bilirubin in the

blood rise :

a- hemolytic jaundice

b- hepatogenous jaundice

c- obstructive jaundice

d- non of the above

348- ......... play an essential role in body metabolism , a

deficiency or excess may lead to serious dearrangement of body

function:

a- enzymes

b- hormones

c- vitamins

d- isoenzymes

349- ............. will interfere with the chemical determination of

bilirubin , giving high variable results:

a- hemolysis

b- hemoglobin

c- vitamins

d- hormones

350- in hemolytic jaundice there will be increase ................ in

serum:

a- direct bilirubin

b- indirect bilirubin

c- total bilirubin

d- all of the above

351- the inhibitor binds reversibly to the same site on the

enzyme that the substrate normally occupy , this type of

inhibition is called :

a- competitive inhibition

b- non competitive inhibition

c- surface recognition

d- product concentration

352- regulation of blood glucose level can be achieved by :

a- hormonal mechanism

b- hepatic and renal mechanism

c- (a) & (b)

d- non of the above

353- insulin is a hormone secretes by :

a- α cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas

b- β cell of islet of langerhans in pancreas

c- suprarenal cortex

d- non of the above

354- cholesterol is a component of all cell membrane and it’s the

precursor of :

a- bile acid

b- steroid hormones

c- vit D

d- all of the above

355- anti diuretic hormone ( ADH) secretion is controlled by:

a- rennin angiotensin

b- plasma osmlality

c- (a) & (b)

d- non of the above

356- the electrophoresis is based on differential migration of :

a- charged particles

b- uncharged particles

c- molecular weight

d- (a) & (b)

357- acid base balance is regulated by :

a- oxygen concentration

b- hydrogen ion concentration

c- nitrogen ion concentration

d- (a) & (b)

358- it’s an increase in hydrogen ion concentration of the blood:

a- acidosis

b- alkalosis

c- acid base balance

d- (a) & (b)

359- over production of acid associated with :

a- diabetes mellitus

b- lactic acidosis

c- methanol poisoning

d- all of the above

360- serum bicarbonate is decreased in:

a- respiratory acidosis

b- metabolic acidosis

c- renal tubular acidosis

d- all of the above

361- chronic deficiency in dietry calcium can lead to :

a- anemia

b- bronchial asthma

c- osteoporosis

d- non of the above

362- ............ is due to decrease blood CO2:

a- metabolic acidosis

b- respiratory acidosis

c- respiratory alkalosis

d- metabolic acidosis

363- ............. is the most important factor affecting body

sodium content:

a- aldosteron secretion

b- antidiuretic hormone

c- testosterone

d- all of the above

364- haemosiderosis is :

a- increase iron store

b- decrease iron store

c- increase hemoglobin

d- decrease hemoglobin

365- if there’s a mixture of protein ( colloids) and salt

( crystalloid) they can be separated by :

a- precipitation

b- dialysis

c- chromatography

d- electrophoresis

366- the predominant cation in intracellular fluid is :

a- sodium

b- potassium

c- calcium

d- phosphorus

367- metabolic acidosis is due to :

a- failure to secret acid

b- bronchial asthma

c- loss of bicarbonate

d- (a) &(c)

368- high level of plasma ferritin may occur due to :

a- inflammatory condition

b- malignant disease

c- liver disease

d- all of the above

369- gonadal hormones estimation is important in :

a- detection of ovulation

b- assessment of amenorrhea

c- evaluation of delayed puberty

d- all of the above

370- the secretion of gonadal hormone is controlled by :

a- LH

b- FSH

c- TSH

d- (a) & (b)

371- the intensity of the color is directly proportional to the

.......... of the analyte in the solution:

a- dilution

b- contamination

c- concentration

d- observation

372- the ............ contain information of any health or safety

rich associated with use or exposure to hazardous chemicals:

a- MSDS

b- NFPA

c- POLT

d- OSHA

373- instraument used to measure color changes in the labs:

a- microscope

b- centrifuge

c- photometer

d- all of the above

374- the color coded signs used to identify flammable chemicals:

a- blue

b- yellow

c- white

d- red

375- quality assurance includes :

a- personal orientation

b- laboratory documentation

c- knowledge of laboratory istraumentation

d- all of the above

376- the laboratory procedure manual include:

a- patient preparation

b- specimen collection & processing

c- specimen preservation , storage & transport

d- all of the above

377- the principal of reflectance photometer

a- measure the amount of light that pass through the solution

b- measure the amount of light that the solution absorbs

c- (a) & (b)

d- non of the above

378- the blood cell counter include :

a- aperture impedence cell counter

b- Geiger counter

c- microscopes

d- all of the above

379- it is mession is to save lives , prevent injuries , and protect

health of all workers in the lab. :

a- MSDS

b- NFPA

c- POLT

d- OSHA

380- ................ requires 3 hours at 140 C ْ or 1 hour at 160 C

ْ for complete sterilization

a- hot air oven

b- autoclave

c- filteration

d- all of the above

381- arterial blood samples are essential to do :

a- CBC

b- urea

c-blood glucose

d- blood gas analysis

382- vaccum tubes with green stopper contain:

a- EDTA

b- sodium citrate

c- heparin

c- no anticoagulant

383- serum separator tube is all of the following except:

a- contain gel that separate serum from cells during centrifugation

b- contain clot activator to speed clot formation

c- has red & black mottled top stopper

d- used for coagulation tests

384- for phlepotomy we use all of the following except:

a- the hypodermic needle & syringe

b- the vaccum tube system

c- the monolet lancets

d- the winged infusion set

385- lab. equipment should be cleaned and disinfected with :

a- hypochlorite

b- formaldehyde

c- glutaraldehyde

d- (b) & (c)

386- any blood split in the lab should be immediately swabbed

with :

a- hypochlorite

b- alcohol

c- soap

d- water

387- CBC is performed using:

a- serum

b- well mixed EDTA whole blood

c- plasma

d- non of the above

388- which tube should be filled first in blood collection:

a- tubes with anticoagulant

b- tube without anticoagulant

c- tubes for blood culture

d- non of the above

389- the monojector is designed to be used with :

a- the monolet lancet

b- tenderlett

c- tenderfoot

d- non of the above

390- the site of choice for capillary puncture in newborns is :

a- the earlobe

b- middle finger

c- the big toe

d- the lateral medial planter heel surface

PARASITOLOGY

426- Intermediate host of Trypansom:

a- triatoma megista

b- sand fly

c- tse tse fly

d- anopheles

427- The cause of chaga's disease:

a- trypanosoma gambiense

b- trypansoma rhodesiense

c- trypansoma cruzi

d- leishmania braziliense

428- The cause of sleeping sickness:

a- trypanosoma gambiense

b- trypanosoma cruzi

c- trypanosoma rhodesiense

d- (a) & (c)

429- Cause Kala- azar:

a- leishmania tropica

b- leishmania braziliense

c- leishmania donovani

d- leishmania mexicana

430-cause oriental sore:

a- plasmodium ovale

b- leishmania tropica

c- leishmania donovani

d- trypanosoma rhodesiense

431- Its trophozite is shaped like a pear , has the 2 nuclei that

resembles eyes and 4 pairs of flagella that look like hair:

a- Trichomonas vaginalis

b- entameoba histolytica

c- giardia lamblia

d- endolimax nana

432- Pear shaped trophozite with 4 anterior flagella and a 5th

forming the outer edge of a short undulating membrane:

a- Trichomonas hominis

b- entameoba histolytica

c- entameoba coli

d- endolimax nana

433- sometimes it cause metastatic infection which involve liver,

lung, brain or other viscera:

a- giardia lamblia

b- Trichomonas vaginalis

c- entameoba histolytica

d- balantidium coli

434- Intestinal ciliate:

a- entameoba histolytica

b- entameoba coli

c- giardia lamblia

d- balantidium coli

435- Asexual multiplication of plasmodium vivax takes place in:

a- anopheles

b- sand fly

c- human

c- tse tse fly

436- Plasmodium falciparam is transmitted by :

a- triatoma megista

b- tse tse fly

c- anopheles

d- sand fly

437- Moves by pseudopods:

a- giardia lamblia

b- balantidium coli

c- entameoba histolytica

d- Trichomonas vaginalis

438- it's one of the round worms:

a- schistosoma mansoni

b- schistosoma haematobium

c- ascaris lumbricoides

d- fasciola hepatica

439- it's one of the tape worms:

a- ascaris lumbricoides

b- ancylostoma duodenal

c- trichuris tricura

d- taenia saginata

440- barrel shapped egg, yellow brown in color with a colorless

protruding mucoid plug in each end:

a- egg of ascaris lumbricoides

b- egg of ancylostoma duodenal

c- egg of trichuris tricura

d- egg of taenia saginata

441- large oval egg ,pale yellow brown in color has a

characteristic side spine & contain a fully developed

miracidium , the worm is:

a- S.mansoni

b- S. hematobium

c- A. duodenal

d- T. solium

442- large oval egg , pale yellow brown in color has an indistinct

operculum and contains unsegmented ovum:

a- S. hematobium

b- fasciola hepatica

c- heterophyes heterophyes

d- taenia solium

443- round egg , embryo is surrounded by a thick brown

radially striated wall , hooklets are present in the embryo:

a- S. hematobium

b- fasciola hepatica

c- A. duodenal

d- T. solium

444-oval colorless egg,flattened on one side & contains a larvae:

a- hymenelopis diminuta

b- dipylidium caninum

c- entrobius vermicularis

d- taenia saginata

445- the cause of malignant malaria:

a- plasmodium vivax

b- plasmodium ovale

c- plasmodium malaria

d- plasmodium falciparum

446- infection occur when infective filariform larvae penetrate

the skin:

a- ascaris lumbricoides

b- ancylostoma duodenal

c- fasciola hepatica

d- heterophyes heterophyes

447- ........lives in the liver and bile ducts of sheep and cattle:

a- stronyloides stercoralis

b- schistosoma mansoni

c- fasciola hepatica

d- ancylostoma duodenal

448-segment found in stool which is white & opaque & measures

20 mm long by 6mm wide with uterus that has a central stem

and more than 13 side branches on each side...the worm is :

a- fasciola hepatica

b- trichuris trichuris

c- heterophyes heterophyes

d- taenia saginata

449- infection is by eating raw or under cooked fish:

a- fasciola hepatica

b- trichuris trichuris

c- heterophyes heterophyes

d- taenia solium

450- ...... is transmitted by eating raw or under cooked beef:

a- heterophyes heterophyes

b- taenia saginata

c- schistosoma mansoni

d- ancylostoma duodenal

BODY FLUID

451- urine output < 400 ml/24 hours is :

a- polyuria

b- anuria

c- oligouria

d- non of the above

452- precipitation of urates takes place in:

a- acidic urine

b- alkaline urine

c- neutral urine

d- all of the above

453- it's one of the causes of persistently acidic urine:

a- urinary tract infection

b- phenylketonurea

c- excessive bicarbonate ingestion

d- excessive ingestion of soda

454- common cause of proteinuria:

a- alcoholism

b- fasting > 18 hours

c- diabetes mellitus

d- Bence- Jones proteins

455- dipstick detect acetoacetic acid & acetone which react with:

a- peroxides

b- nitroprusside

c- diazo compounds

d- indoxyl esters

456- in dipstick bilirubin reacts with :

a- nitroprusside

b- peroxides

c- indoxyl esters

d- diazo compounds

457- among the common cause of hematouria:

a- urogenital carcinoma

b- diabetes mellitus

c- heavy exercise

d- metabolic disorder

458- large number of hyaline cast indicated:

a- acute pyelonephritis

b- proliferative glomerulonephritis

c- heart failure

d- all of the above

459- red cell casts indicates:

a- acute pyelonephritis

b- proliferative glomerulonephritis

c- heart failure

d- all of the above

460- crystals which look like envelope :

a- triple phosphate

b- cystine

c- uric acid

d- calcium oxalate

461- Biuret test is done to determine:

a- glucose b- pentose

c- protein d- galactose

462- the 1st tube of synovial fluid is for:

a- hematology b- chemistry

c- microbiology d- microscopy

463- square plate like crystals with notched corners in synovial

fluid indicate:

a- uric acid b- calcium pyrophosphate

c- cholesterol d- monosodium urate

464- abnormal forms in semen should not exceed:

a- 10 % b- 5 %

c- 25 % d- 50 %

Lab.Management

477-The process of getting things done through and with people

operating in organized group toward a common goal is the

a- management

b- Organization

c- Planning

d- None of the above

478- Primary objectives in the planning are directed to

a- the laboratory as a whole

b- Increase the efficiency in the performance of the lab. test

c- Decrease the costs in the performance of the lab. test

d- All of the above

479- Forecasting needs for staff personnel means

a-Prediction in relation to the kind of technician and technologist

who will be working in the lab.

b- Plan for the full utilization of efficient use of instrument

c- Plan for the full use of space in the lab.

d- None of the above

480-An organization

a- Is formed when 2 or more persons are brought together to achieve

a common goal

b- Is closely related to planning

c- Involves structuring activities and functions within institutions to

achieve the goals and objects

d- all of the above

481- The real behavior and relationships of organization

members usually differ from their planned behavior and

relationships. It is

a- Formal organization

b- Informal organization

c- Space utilization

d- None of the above

482- The intra lab. System includes the following except

a- Calendar format

b- Histogram format

c- out of limits report sheet

d- Proficiency testing and computer program

483- The out of limits report form provides

a- Space for recording reagents changes

b- Control lot number changes

c- Serve as a general "dairy" of the test methodology

d- All of the above

484- Patient preparation, specimen collection and technical

performance of lab. test are general categories of..............

a- Planning

b- Utilization of space

c- Work flow

d- Quality control

485-floor book manual includes the following except

a- Test name

b- Sample fluid

c- Minimum volume

d- Proper procedures for collecting routine and special tests

486- Collection procedure manual involve

a- Blood collection from pediatric patients

b- Intensive care blood collection

c- Isolation techniques for lab. Personnel

d- All of the above

487-On the container and \or lab requisition

a- Patient's full name should be put

b- Hospital number should be put

c- Date of collection should be put

d- All of the above

488 Accuracy referred to the following except

a- Correctness and exactness of the test

b- Closeness of the test to the true value

c- True value determined by comparison to a standard

d- reproducibility

489- Regarding precision the following is true except

a- Reproducibility

b- Closeness of the test results to one another when using the same

specimen

c- In the clinical lab it is expressed as (SD) and coefficient of

variation

d- The capability of the method to detect a small amount of

substance with some assurance

490- Reliability is

a- The ability of a method to measure only that substance being

tested

b- The ability of the test method to maintain its accuracy despite of

extraneous circumstances

c- The ability of the method to maintain accuracy, precision and

ruggedness

d- None of the above

491- ................. This symbol in the flow chart means

a- Beginning process

b- Decision

c- Manual operation

d- Decision mod

492- This symbol in the flow chart means ( )

a-Beginning process

b- Decision

c- Direction flow

d- Document

493- Work load on which personnel requirements are usually

based is influenced by

a- changes in volume

b- Test mix

c- Patient population

d- All of the above

494- The physical features of the lab. one of the measures of

a- forecasting of personnel needs

b- Assessment of space utilization

c- Time management

d- None of the above

495- If P (E) is the probability of E we may express this

definition as

a- P (E) = m\N

b- P (E) = N\m

c- P (E) = m X N

d- None of the above

496- When a test indicates a positive status when the true status

is negative it is called

a- positive test

b- False positive test

c- Negative test

d- False negative test

497- The specificity of a test

a- The probability of a positive test results or (presence of the

symptoms) given the presence of the disease

b- The probability of a negative test results or (absence of the

symptoms) given the absence of the disease

c- a and b

d-None of the above

498- The largest collection of entities for which we have an

interest at a particular time is called

a- Population

b- Sample

c- Data

d-All of the above

499- A sample is

a- A part of a population

b- The whole population

c- Endless population

d- None of the above

500- If we have 100 students and they are ranked by age

beginning with the 4th student, every tenth student is chosen (the

student no. 4 then 14 and 24 and so on) this type of sample is

called

a- Systemically selected sample

b- A stratified selected sample

c- Simple random sample

d- Cluster selected sample

501-A point estimate is

a- A single numerical value used to estimate the corresponding

population parameter

b- Tow numerical values defining a range of values include the

parameter being estimated

c- a and b

d- None of the above

502-A statistical inference is

a- A procedure by which we reach a conclusion about population

based on the information obtained from the sample drawn from it

b- The cause behind estimation in the health science fields

c- Calculated data from the data of the sample that are

approximation of the corresponding parameter

d- None of the above

503- Estimator is

a- the rule that tells us how to compute the single value which is

called estimate

b- Two numerical values defining the range of values

c- a, b

d- None of the above

504 The table which shows the way in which values of the

variables are distributed among the specified class interval is

called

a- Relative frequency

b- Ordered array

c- Frequency table

c- None of the above

505- The following are the ages of 5 patients seen in the

emergency room in certain day 35, 30, 55, 40, 25 years the mean

of their ages is

a- 37 years

b- 30 years

c- 39 years

d- 40 years

506- A mathematical tool designed to facilitate complex clinical

decision in which many variables must be considered

spontaneously is called

a- Reference value

b- Decision analysis

c- Quality assurance

d- None of the above