lung compliance, a need for high positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP), and
other respiratory maneuvers. At present, the treatment for this syndrome primarily is
supportive, including mechanical ventilation, high inspired oxygen, and PEEP. If
patients fail to show improved gas exchange by day 7, the mortality associated with
6 Although R.G. currently does not have ARDS, the severity of
his sepsis strongly suggests he may develop this complication.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a well-recognized sequel of sepsis.
Huge quantities of clotting factors and platelets are consumed in DIC as widespread
coagulation and inflammation take place throughout the circulatory system.
result, the ratio of prothrombin time (PT) to international normalized ratio (INR) and
the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are prolonged, and the platelet count
commonly is decreased in sepsis. Decreased fibrinogen levels and increased fibrin
split products generally are diagnostic for DIC. The PT of 18 seconds and the
decreased platelet count of 40,000/μL in R.G. are consistent with sepsis-induced
Central nervous system (CNS) changes, including lethargy, disorientation, confusion,
and psychosis, are commonly observed in septic patients. Altered mental status is a
well-recognized symptom associated with CNS infections, such as meningitis and
brain abscess. These changes, however, are also commonly observed with other sites
of infection. R.G.’s confused state is consistent with that expected with septic
PROBLEMS IN THE DIAGNOSIS OF AN
Various factors, including major surgery, acute myocardial infarction, and initiation
of corticosteroid therapy, are associated with an increased WBC count. Unlike
infection, however, a shift to the left does not occur with these disease states or
drugs. In R.G., the stress dose of hydrocortisone and his recent surgical procedure
might have contributed to the increased WBC count. The presence of bands in this
patient, however, strongly suggests a bone marrow response to an infectious process.
The ability of corticosteroids to mimic or mask infection is noteworthy.
Corticosteroids are associated with an increased WBC count and glucose intolerance
with the initiation of therapy or when doses are increased. Furthermore, some
patients experience corticosteroid-induced mental status changes that may mimic
those associated with sepsis. Although corticosteroids mimic infection, they also
have the ability to mask infection. For example, bowel perforation in a patient with
ulcerative colitis would result in significant peritoneal contamination. Considering
their potent anti-inflammatory effects, concomitant receipt of glucocorticoids may,
however, reduce the classic findings of peritonitis. Furthermore, corticosteroids can
reduce and sometimes ablate the febrile response. Thus, these corticosteroid-treated
patients may be asymptomatic but at great risk for gram-negative septic shock.
Another example of the influence of corticosteroids on the diagnosis of infection
relates to neurosurgical procedures. Certain neurosurgical procedures are associated
with significant trauma to the meninges; however, the patient often is asymptomatic
while receiving high-dose dexamethasone, a corticosteroid commonly used to reduce
the inflammation and swelling associated with neurosurgical procedures. When the
dexamethasone dose is decreased, the patient subsequently may experience classic
meningismus, including stiff neck, photophobia, and headache. The lumbar puncture
may demonstrate cloudy cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), an elevated WBC count, high
CSF protein, and low CSF glucose. Although the signs and symptoms are consistent
with infectious bacterial meningitis, if no bacteria grow from the CSF sample, this
disease state represents an aseptic meningitis (i.e., inflammation of the meninges
without an infectious origin).
7 Certain drugs may cause aseptic meningitis, including
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, sulfonamides, and certain antiepileptics.
Fever is also a common finding with autoimmune diseases, such as systemic lupus
erythematosus and temporal arteritis, or with sarcoidosis, chronic liver disease, and
10 Acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism,
postoperative pulmonary atelectasis, and certain cancers are also commonly
associated with fever. Factitious fever or self-induced disease must be considered in
certain patients. More recent evaluations of fever of unknown origin have resulted in
an inability to diagnose the etiology of the fever; in many instances, the fever has
resulted in the unnecessary use of antibiotics.
10 After infection, autoimmune disease,
and malignancy have been ruled out, drug fever should be considered. Drugs,
including certain antimicrobials and antiepileptics, have been associated with drug
fever. Drug fever generally occurs after 7 to 10 days of therapy and resolves within
48 hours of the drug’s discontinuation.
11 Some clinicians claim that patients with drug
fever generally feel “well” and are unaware of their fever. A rechallenge with the
offending agent usually results in recurrence of fever within hours of administration.
Drug fever should be considered a diagnosis of exclusion, however, and should be
considered only after eliminating the presence of other disease states.
In summary, R.G. has an autoimmune disease, temporal arteritis, which is known
to be associated with fever. Similarly, his corticosteroid administration and
phenytoin use may confound the diagnosis of infection. His other signs and symptoms,
however, strongly suggest that R.G.’s problems are of an infectious origin.
ESTABLISHING THE SITE OF THE INFECTION
CASE 62-1, QUESTION 4: What are the most likely sources of R.G.’s infection?
Independent of the presumed site of infection, in septic patients a series of blood
samples for culture tests must be drawn to demonstrate the presence of bacteremia.
After blood culture sampling, a thorough physical examination often documents the
source of infection. Urosepsis, the most common cause of nosocomial infection, may
be associated with dysuria, flank pain, and abnormal urinalysis.
increased sputum production, altered chest radiograph, and hypoxemia may direct the
clinician toward a pulmonary source. Evidence for an infected IV line
might include pain, erythema, and purulent discharge around the IV catheter. Other
potential sites of infection include the peritoneum, pelvis, bone, and CNS.
R.G. has several possible sites of infection. The copious production of yellow–
green sputum, tachypnea, and the altered chest radiograph suggest the presence of
pneumonia. The abdominal pain, absent bowel sounds, and recent surgical
procedure, however, suggest an intra-abdominal source.
urinalysis (>50 WBC/HPF) and the erythema around the central venous catheter
suggest urinary tract and intravenous catheter infections, respectively.
CASE 62-1, QUESTION 5: What are the most likely pathogens associated with R.G.’s infection(s)?
R.G. has several possible sources of infection and likely pathogens. Table 62-1
provides a classification of infectious organisms (e.g., gram-positive, gram-negative,
aerobic, and anaerobic), and Table 62-2 lists the most likely organisms associated
with sites of infection. Bacterial pneumonia is caused by various pathogens,
including Streptococcus pneumoniae, Enterobacteriaceae, and “atypical” pathogens
(e.g., Legionella pneumophila).
14 However, empirical antimicrobial therapy directed
against all the above organisms is not necessary in all patients. Community-acquired
pneumonia in normal hosts is generally associated with bacterial, S. pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae, and “atypical” bacterial pathogens.
nosocomial (acquired in hospital or in other health care facilities, e.g., nursing home)
pneumonia is associated with gram-negative bacilli (e.g., Escherichia coli,
Klebsiella species, Enterobacter species, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) and
Staphylococcus aureus. If the pneumonia is a result of a gastric aspiration, empirical
antibacterial treatment of mouth anaerobes generally takes place; however, their true
pathogenicity in aspiration pneumonia is not clear. For the empirical treatment of
hospital-associated pneumonia or ventilator-associated pneumonia, knowledge of a
hospital epidemiology is useful. If P. aeruginosa or Enterobacter cloacae
predominate in an institution, then broad-spectrum agents should be used directed
against these pathogens. Similarly, prior or concurrent receipt of antimicrobial
therapy significantly impacts the choice of empirical therapy. Age is an important
determinant in the epidemiology of infection. For example, meningitis in a neonate is
commonly caused by group B streptococci, E. coli, and Listeria monocytogenes,
whereas these bacteria are uncommon meningitis pathogens in normal adults. The
presence of concomitant diseases, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) or alcohol and IV drug use, also influences the specific pathogen. As an
example, patients with COPD-associated pneumonia are more likely to be infected
by S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae, whereas chronic alcoholics are more likely to
have Klebsiella species as a source of pneumonia.
Classification of Infectious Organisms
Streptococci: pneumococcus, viridans streptococci; group A streptococci
Staphylococci: Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis
Neisseria (Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae)
Enterobacteriaceae (Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Proteus, Serratia,
Salmonella, Shigella, Morganella, Providencia)
Haemophilus (coccobacilli morphology)
Clostridia (Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium tetani, Clostridium difficile)
Bacteroides (Bacteroides fragilis, Bacteroides melaninogenicus)
Aspergillus, Candida, Coccidioides, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma, Mucor, Tinea, Trichophyton
Influenza; hepatitis A, B, C, D, E; human immunodeficiency virus; rubella; herpes; influenza;
cytomegalovirus; respiratory syncytial virus; Epstein–Barr virus; severe acute respiratory syndrome
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Q fever
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Mycoplasma hominis
Treponema pallidum, Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
Site of Infection: Suspected Organisms
Site/Type of Infection Suspected Organisms
Pharyngitis Viral, group A streptococci
Otitis Viral, Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Moraxella
Acute sinusitis Viral, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis
Chronic sinusitis Anaerobes, Staphylococcus aureus (as well as suspected organisms
associated with acute sinusitis)
Epiglottitis Viral, H. influenzae
Normal host S. pneumoniae, viral, mycoplasma
Aspiration Normal aerobic and anaerobic mouth flora
Pediatrics S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
COPD S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Legionella, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma
Alcoholic S. pneumoniae, Klebsiella
Aspiration Mouth anaerobes, aerobic gram-negative rods, S. aureus
Neutropenic Molds, aerobic gram-negative rods, S. aureus
HIV Molds, Pneumocystis, Legionella, Nocardia, S. pneumoniae, Pseudomonas
Community-acquired Escherichia coli, other gram-negative rods, S. aureus, Staphylococcus
Hospital-acquired Resistant aerobic gram-negative rods, enterococci
Cellulitis Group A streptococci, S. aureus
IV catheter infection S. aureus, S. epidermidis
Surgical wound S. aureus, gram-negative rods
Diabetic ulcer S. aureus, gram-negative aerobic rods, anaerobes
1. Intra-abdominal Bacteroides fragilis, E. coli, other aerobic gram-negative rods, enterococci
2. Gastroenteritis Salmonella, Shigella, Helicobacter, Campylobacter, Clostridium difficile,
amoeba, Giardia, viral, enterotoxigenic-hemorrhagic E. coli
Preexisting valvular disease Viridans streptococci
IV drug user S. aureus, aerobic gram-negative rods, enterococci, fungi
Prosthetic valve S. epidermidis, S. aureus
S. aureus, aerobic gram-negative rods
<2 months E. coli, group B streptococci, Listeria
2 months–12 years S. pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, H. influenzae
Adults S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis
Hospital-acquired S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, aerobic gram-negative rods
Postneurosurgery S. aureus, aerobic gram-negative rods
COPD, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; IV, intravenous.
Immune status is an important predictor of likely pathogens. HIV/AIDS patients or
those receiving Atgam, cyclosporine (or tacrolimus), sirolimus, and corticosteroids
have lymphocyte deficiency or dysfunction-associated infections, including those
caused by cytomegalovirus, Pneumocystis jiroveci, atypical mycobacteria, and
Cryptococcus neoformans. Patients with leukemia and neutropenia are at risk for
infection caused by aerobic gram-negative bacilli,
including P. aeruginosa, Candida species, and Aspergillus species, as well as the
In R.G., the abdomen, respiratory tract, urinary tract, and IV catheter are all
potential sites of infection. Intra-abdominal infection is likely caused by aerobic
gram-negative enteric bacteria, Bacteroides fragilis, and possibly enterococcus;
nosocomial urinary tract infection is usually caused by aerobic gram-negative
bacteria. R.G.’s pneumonia could be attributable to gram-negative bacilli and
staphylococci, as well as other organisms. Furthermore, his long-term use of
corticosteroids may predispose him to infection caused by more opportunistic
organisms, including Legionella, P. jiroveci, and fungi. Lastly, his IV catheter
infection suggests infection caused by staphylococci, including Staphylococcus
epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus.
MICROBIOLOGIC TESTS AND SUSCEPTIBILITY
CASE 62-1, QUESTION 6: A Gram stain of R.G.’s tracheal aspirate shows gram-negative bacilli. What
tests may assist with the identification of the pathogen(s)?
Once the site of infection has been determined and host defense and other
epidemiologic factors have been evaluated, additional tests can be performed to
identify the pathogen. The Gram stain uses crystal violet solution and iodine staining
bacteria gram positive or gram negative; some organisms are gram variable. In
addition, the shape of the organism (cocci, bacilli) is readily apparent with the use of
the Gram stain. Streptococci and staphylococci are gram-positive cocci, whereas E.
coli, E. cloacae, and P. aeruginosa appear as gram-negative bacilli (Table 62-1).
the Gram stain of the tracheal aspirate demonstrates gram-positive cocci in clusters,
empirical antistaphylococcal therapy is indicated. In contrast, if the Gram stain
shows gram-negative rods, antimicrobials with activity against these pathogens
Similar to the Gram stain in bacterial infection, the India ink and potassium
hydroxide stains are helpful in the identification of certain fungi. The acid-fast bacilli
stain is critical in the diagnosis of infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
antibacterials (e.g., different generations of cephalosporins). Tables 62-4, 62-5, and
62-6 list in-vitro susceptibilities of aerobic gram-positive, gram-negative, and
anaerobic bacteria, respectively.
Culture and Susceptibility Testing
Culture and susceptibility testing provides final identification of the pathogen, as
well as information regarding the likely effectiveness of various antimicrobials.
Although these tests provide more information than the Gram stain, they generally
require 18 to 24 hours to complete. After the pathogen has been identified, Table 62-
7 can be used in conjunction with institution-specific susceptibility studies to select
the most appropriate antimicrobial.
Classification of Antibacterials
Penicillinase-resistant penicillins
Isoxazolyl penicillins (dicloxacillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin)
Combination with β-lactamase inhibitors
Augmentin (amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid)
Avycaz (ceftazidime plus avibactam)
Timentin (ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid)
Unasyn (ampicillin plus sulbactam)
Zerbaxa (ceftolozane plus tazobactam)
Zosyn (piperacillin plus tazobactam)
Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
Dalfopristin/Quinupristin (Synercid)
Tetracyclines (doxycycline, minocycline, tetracycline, tigecycline)
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra)
In-Vitro Antimicrobial Susceptibility: Aerobic Gram-Positive Cocci
Ceftaroline ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
Clindamycin ++++ ++ ++++ + +++
Cotrimoxazole ++++ +++ ++ + ++
Dalbavancin ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
Nafcillin (Oxacillin) ++++ ++++ ++++
f ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
Telavancin ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
f ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
Vancomycin ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ +++ ++++
bUsually requires combination therapy (e.g., ampicillin or ampicillin and ceftriaxone) endocarditis.
dActive against Enterococcus faecium but unpredictable against E. faecalis.
fActive versus vancomycin-resistant E. faecium.
MR, methicillin resistant; TGC, third-generation cephalosporin.
In-Vitro Antimicrobial Susceptibility: Gram-Negative Aerobes
PseudomonaeruginosaAmpicillin ++ +++
Amikacin ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
Aztreonam ++++ ++++ + ++++ ++++ +++
Cefepime ++++ ++++ +++ ++++ ++++ +++
Ceftazidime +++ +++ + ++++ ++++ +++
Ceftazidime-avibactam ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
Ceftolozane-tazobactam ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++
Ceftaroline ++++ ++++ + ++++ ++ +++
Cotrimoxazole ++ +++ +++ ++++ +++
Ertapenem ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ +
Gentamicin ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ +++
Imipenem/Meropenem/Doripenem ++++ ++++ ++++ +++ ++++ +++
Quinolones +++ ++++ +++ ++++ ++++ ++
Tigecycline ++++ ++++ ++++ ++ ++++ −
Timentin +++ ++ + ++++ +++ +++
Tobramycin ++++ ++++ ++++ ++++ +++ ++++
Zosyn ++++ ++++ ++ ++++ ++++ ++++
aβ-Lactamase-producing strains.
bCefotaxime, ceftizoxime, ceftriaxone.
TGC, third-generation cephalosporin.
Antimicrobial Susceptibility: Anaerobes
fragilis Peptococcus Peptostreptococcus
(Doripenem/Ertapenem/Meropenem)
Piperacillin-tazobactam (Amoxicillinclavulanate, Ticarcillin-clavulanate)
Antimicrobials of Choice in the Treatment of Bacterial Infection
Organism Drug of Choice Alternatives Comments
Clindamycin is the most reliable alternative
for penicillin-allergic patients.
penicillin-nonsusceptible pneumococci is
amoxicillin doxycycline 20%–30%, high-dose penicillin or
amoxicillin is active against most of these
Penicillin-resistant pneumococci commonly
demonstrate resistance to other agents,
including erythromycin, tetracyclines, and
(gemifloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin),
ceftriaxone, and cefotaxime are options for
treatment of high-level penicillin-resistant
Most commonly isolated enterococcus
(80%–85%). Most reliable antienterococcal
agents are ampicillin (penicillin, piperacillintazobactam), vancomycin, and linezolid.
Monotherapy generally inhibits but does not
kill the enterococcus. Daptomycin is unique
in its bactericidal activity against
enterococci. Aminoglycosides must be
added to ampicillin or vancomycin to
provide bactericidal activity. High-level
aminoglycoside resistance should be
Second most common enterococcal
organism (10%–20%) and is more likely
than E. faecalis to be resistant to multiple
antimicrobials. Most reliable agents are
daptomycin, D/Q, and linezolid.
Monotherapy generally inhibits but does
not kill the enterococcus. Aminoglycosides
or ceftriaxone must be added to cell wall–
active agents to provide bactericidal
activity. Ampicillin and vancomycin
resistance is common. Daptomycin, D/Q,
and linezolid are drugs of choice for
vancomycin-resistant isolates.
Nafcillin, oxacillin Cefazolin,
10%–15% of isolates inhibited by
penicillin. Most isolates susceptible to
nafcillin. Most second- and thirdgeneration cephalosporins adequate in the
treatment of infection (exceptions include
ceftazidime and cefonicid). Methicillinresistant S. aureus must be treated with
vancomycin; however, trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole, daptomycin, D/Q,
Vancomycin Trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole,
linezolid, vancins, doxycycline, or
Nafcillin, oxacillin Cefazolin,
Most isolates are β-lactam-, clindamycin-,
and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole–
resistant. Most reliable agents are
vancomycin, daptomycin, D/Q, and
linezolid. Rifampin is active and can be
used in conjunction with other agents;
however, monotherapy with rifampin is
associated with development of resistance.
Vancomycin Daptomycin, linezolid,
Diphtheroids Penicillin Cephalosporin
doxycycline, secondor third-generation
Enterobacter Trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole
Not predictably inhibited by thirdgeneration cephalosporins. Carbapenems,
quinolones, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole,
cefepime, and aminoglycosides are most
Escherichia coli Third-generation
Extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL)
producers should be treated with a
combinations, secondgeneration
Helicobacter pylori PPI, clarithromycin, PPI, bismuth,
ESBL producers should be treated with a
Legionella Fluoroquinolone Erythromycin ±
Proteus mirabilis Ampicillin First-generation
Other Proteus Third-generation
Most active agents include aminoglycosides,
doripenem, imipenem, meropenem,
ceftazidime ceftazidime/avibactam,
cefepime, ceftolozane/tazobactam,
aztreonam, and the extended-spectrum
penicillins. Monotherapy is adequate for
Salmonella typhi Quinolone Ceftriaxone
Serratia marcescens Third-generation
Shigella Quinolone Trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole,
minocycline, βlactamase inhibitor
Bacteroides fragilis Metronidazole β-Lactamase
Most active agents (95%–100%) include
metronidazole, the β-lactamase inhibitor
combinations ampicillin-sulbactam,
piperacillin-tazobactam, ticarcillin-clavulanic
acid, and penems. Clindamycin, cefoxitin,
cefotetan, cefmetazole, ceftizoxime have
good activity but not to the degree of
metronidazole. Aminoglycosides and
Clostridia difficile Metronidazole Vancomycin
Oral vancomycin is the drug of choice for
Fidaxomicin superior to other agents in the
Fusobacterium Penicillin Metronidazole,
Peptostreptococcus Penicillin Clindamycin,
Most β-lactams active (exceptions include
aztreonam, nafcillin, ceftazidime)
Actinomyces israelii Penicillin Tetracyclines
Nocardia Trimethoprim-sulfamethAomxaikzaoclein,
Borrelia burgdorferi Doxycycline Ampicillin, secondor third-generation
Treponema pallidum Penicillin Doxycycline
The most widely used tests for bacterial susceptibility are the disk diffusion and the
broth dilution methods. The disk diffusion (Kirby–Bauer) technique uses an agar
plate on which an inoculum of the organism is placed. After inoculation, several
antimicrobial-laden disks are placed on the plate, and evidence of bacterial growth
is observed after 18 to 24 hours. If the antimicrobial is active against the pathogen, a
zone of growth inhibition is observed around the disk. Based on guidelines provided
by the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI), the diameter of inhibition
is reported as susceptible, intermediate, or resistant. CLSI zones of inhibitions are
determined taking into account known achievable antibacterial concentrations.
However, broth dilution determination of minimum inhibitory concentration (see the
following text) better links with achievable antibacterial concentrations.
The broth dilution method involves introducing a bacterial inoculum into several
tubes or wells filled with broth. Serial dilutions of antimicrobials (e.g., nafcillin 0.5,
1.0, and 2.0 mcg/mL) are placed in the respective wells. After bacteria are allowed
to incubate for 18 to 24 hours, the wells are examined for bacterial growth. If the
well is cloudy, bacterial growth has occurred, suggesting resistance to the specific
antimicrobial at that concentration. As an example, if bacterial growth is observed
with S. aureus at 0.5 mcg/mL of nafcillin but not at 1.0 mcg/mL, then 1.0 mcg/mL
would be considered the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for nafcillin
Similar to the disk diffusion method, the CLSI provides guidelines
into account the pharmacokinetic characteristics of an antimicrobial to determine
whether the MIC should be reported as susceptible, intermediately susceptible, or
resistant. MIC interpretations are both pathogen- and antimicrobial-specific. For
example, ciprofloxacin achieves serum concentrations of only 1 to 4 mcg/mL,
whereas the fourth-generation cephalosporin, cefepime, achieves peak serum
concentrations of 75 to 100 mcg/mL; consequently an MIC of 4.0 mcg/mL for P.
aeruginosa would be interpreted by CLSI as resistant to ciprofloxacin but susceptible
Although these tests provide an accurate assessment of in-vitro susceptibility, the
time delay (18–24 hours) can hinder streamlining of therapy. An alternative efficient,
but more expensive, MIC test is the E test, which uses an antibiotic-laden plastic
strip with increasing concentrations of a specific antimicrobial from one end to the
other. The strip is placed on an agar plate with the actively growing pathogen.
Inhibition of growth observed at specific marks on the strip coincides with the MIC
of the organism. Numerous studies have confirmed that the E test is as effective as
traditional susceptibility testing. Several automated antimicrobial susceptibility
systems are available in the United States, including Phoenix (Becton Dickinson,
Franklin Lakes, NJ), Vitek (bioMérieux, Durham, NC), MicroScan WalkAway
(Siemens Healthcare Diagnostics, Tarrytown, NY), and Sensititre (Trek Diagnostics,
Cleveland, OH). These systems generally use a computerized algorithm for
interpreting results and determine the antibiotic MIC for the organism by using
specialized decision technology. Two major advantages of automated susceptibility
methodologies include a reduction in labor and faster reporting of susceptibility
results, potentially leading to the earlier initiation of appropriate antibiotic therapy.
Although these represent advantages, disadvantages exist, particularly with cystic
fibrosis isolates. Most clinical microbiology laboratories use automated
susceptibility testing systems. While these automated antimicrobial susceptibility
systems are an improvement over traditional broth dilution and disc diffusion
methods, other emerging technologies including PCR and other “next generation”
systems are likely to result in more rapid identification of pathogens and their
associated antimicrobial susceptibility.
In general, despite improvements in the standardization of testing in
anaerobes, institutions do not routinely perform susceptibility testing for these
bacteria. In contrast, susceptibility testing is now available for Candida species, and
these in-vitro data have been demonstrated to predict clinical success in the patient
The consensus of the CLSI and other experts is that anaerobic isolates from blood,
bone and joint sources, brain abscesses, empyemic fluid, and other body fluids that
are normally sterile should be considered for susceptibility testing. However, in
general, these susceptibilities are rarely performed.
developing a standardized test for determining fungal susceptibility, but the primary
emphasis has been on the susceptibility of Candida species to azoles in the treatment
19 Although standardized susceptibility testing for molds is established
by the CLSI and other organizations, the correlation with clinical outcome is
variable; the best correlation between antifungal susceptibility testing and efficacy
lies with the use of azoles in the treatment of disseminated aspergillosis.
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